a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for valsartan which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client has been prescribed Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Incorrect Options Rationale: - Option B, Hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. - Option C, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Valsartan use. - Option D, Hypercalcemia, is not a known adverse effect of Valsartan; instead, Valsartan can lead to hyperkalemia.

2. Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management and cough suppression. Sedation is not a primary indication for these medications.

3. When educating a client starting a new prescription for simvastatin, which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting simvastatin is to report any muscle pain immediately because it could be indicative of rhabdomyolysis, a serious side effect of the medication. This prompt reporting can help prevent further complications and ensure timely medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because simvastatin can be taken at any time of the day. Choice C is generally true for many medications, but there is no specific interaction between grapefruit juice and simvastatin. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take simvastatin at bedtime.

4. What is the classification of furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is classified as a loop diuretic, not an anticoagulant, iron supplement, or anticonvulsant. Loop diuretics, like furosemide, act in the loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism makes them effective in treating conditions such as edema and hypertension. Therefore, the correct classification for furosemide is a loop diuretic (Choice A).

5. When does regular insulin typically peak?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Regular insulin usually peaks around 1 to 5 hours after administration. This peak time frame is important to consider when managing blood glucose levels and timing meals to coincide with insulin activity. Choice A, '30 minutes to 2 ½ hours,' is incorrect because regular insulin typically peaks later. Choice B, '1 to 3 hours,' is not the most accurate as the peak for regular insulin can extend beyond 3 hours. Choice C, '6 to 14 hours,' is incorrect as this timeframe is more indicative of long-acting insulins, not regular insulin.

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