Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is commonly used to treat migraine headaches?

• A. Beta-blockers
• B. Cholinesterase Inhibitors
• C. ACE inhibitors
• D. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are often used in the management of migraine headaches due to their ability to help prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of migraines. They work by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, which can help in controlling migraine symptoms. While beta-blockers are also sometimes used in migraine prevention, anti-epileptic drugs are more commonly associated with migraine treatment. Cholinesterase Inhibitors are not typically used for migraine headaches, as they are more commonly associated with conditions like Alzheimer's disease. ACE inhibitors are a type of medication used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, but they are not a first-line treatment for migraines.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?

• A. Serum potassium.
• B. Serum sodium.
• C. Serum chloride.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.

3. When caring for a school-age child with a new prescription for Atomoxetine, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Kidney toxicity
• B. Liver damage
• C. Seizure activity
• D. Adrenal insufficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver damage. Atomoxetine can lead to liver damage as an adverse effect. Symptoms of liver damage include jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, dark urine, and elevated liver enzymes. Monitoring for these signs is crucial when a child is on this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Atomoxetine is not known to cause kidney toxicity, seizure activity, or adrenal insufficiency as primary adverse effects.

4. A client is starting a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid grapefruit juice.
• C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
• D. Monitor heart rate daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients prescribed verapamil should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice as it can potentiate the drug's effects, leading to adverse reactions. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of verapamil, resulting in higher blood levels of the medication and an increased risk of side effects. Instructions such as taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) are not specific to verapamil and are generally recommended. While monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice C) is important for clients on antihypertensive medications, it is not a direct concern related to verapamil. Monitoring heart rate daily (Choice D) is not a primary consideration when starting verapamil, as it is more commonly used for its effects on blood pressure and arrhythmias rather than heart rate.

5. Which of the following is not related to drug toxicity of Atenolol?

• A. CHF
• B. Tachycardia
• C. AV block
• D. Sedative appearance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, is not typically associated with tachycardia. Instead, drug toxicity of Atenolol is more commonly linked to bradycardia due to its beta-blocking effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Symptoms of Atenolol toxicity may include heart failure (CHF), AV block, and a sedative appearance, but not tachycardia.

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