Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is commonly used to treat migraine headaches?

• A. Beta-blockers
• B. Cholinesterase Inhibitors
• C. ACE inhibitors
• D. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are often used in the management of migraine headaches due to their ability to help prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of migraines. They work by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, which can help in controlling migraine symptoms. While beta-blockers are also sometimes used in migraine prevention, anti-epileptic drugs are more commonly associated with migraine treatment. Cholinesterase Inhibitors are not typically used for migraine headaches, as they are more commonly associated with conditions like Alzheimer's disease. ACE inhibitors are a type of medication used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, but they are not a first-line treatment for migraines.

2. A client has a new prescription for Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) injections. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
• B. I will stop taking the medication when my symptoms improve.
• C. I should take this medication with food.
• D. I will need to avoid green, leafy vegetables while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with pernicious anemia or other causes of vitamin B12 deficiency may need to take cyanocobalamin for life to prevent deficiency. It is a lifelong treatment in many cases to maintain adequate B12 levels. Choice B is incorrect because stopping the medication when symptoms improve may lead to a relapse of the deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as cyanocobalamin injections are usually administered on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to avoid green, leafy vegetables while taking cyanocobalamin; in fact, these vegetables are good dietary sources of vitamin B12.

3. A client is starting therapy with raloxifene. Which adverse effect should the client monitor for as instructed by the nurse?

• A. Leg cramps
• B. Hot flashes
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Hair loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hot flashes are a common adverse effect associated with raloxifene therapy. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of SERMs due to their estrogen-like effects on the body. Leg cramps, urinary frequency, and hair loss are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for hot flashes as part of the medication education.

4. When assessing a client with chronic Neutropenia receiving Filgrastim, what action should the nurse take to evaluate for an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Assess for bone pain.
• B. Assess for right lower quadrant pain.
• C. Auscultate for crackles in the bases of the lungs.
• D. Auscultate the chest to listen for a heart murmur.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when assessing a client receiving Filgrastim for chronic Neutropenia is to assess for bone pain. Bone pain is a known dose-related adverse effect of Filgrastim. Acetaminophen or opioid analgesics can be used to manage bone pain if necessary. Assessing for other types of pain, lung crackles, or heart murmurs would not be specific to the adverse effects of Filgrastim.

5. During the repair of a skin laceration, a client receives a local anesthetic of Lidocaine. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?

• A. Seizures
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Seizures are a potential adverse reaction following the administration of local anesthetics like Lidocaine. This adverse effect is important to monitor as it can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. It is crucial for the nurse to be vigilant in recognizing any signs of seizure activity to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

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