Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine to a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the insulin via IV push.
• B. Rotate injection sites to prevent tissue damage.
• C. Mix the insulin with regular insulin before administering it.
• D. Administer the insulin at the same time each day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering insulin glargine is to give it at the same time each day. This consistent timing helps maintain stable blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because insulin glargine should not be administered via IV push. Choice B is incorrect as rotating injection sites is typically done for short-acting insulins to prevent lipodystrophy, not for insulin glargine. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine should not be mixed with other insulins before administration.

2. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?

• A. Monitor lung sounds
• B. Check oxygen saturation
• C. Assess for cough
• D. Assess for fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Blurred vision.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.

5. Which lab test is used to assess renal function?

• A. Check blood glucose levels
• B. Monitor serum creatinine
• C. Monitor BUN
• D. Check electrolyte levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor serum creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of renal function as it reflects the glomerular filtration rate. An increase in serum creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function. Checking blood glucose levels (choice A) is not specific to assessing renal function but is used to diagnose diabetes. Monitoring BUN (choice C) is important but not as specific as serum creatinine in assessing renal function. Checking electrolyte levels (choice D) is essential in assessing kidney function but is not as specific as monitoring serum creatinine.

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