Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit sodium intake to 4 grams per day.
• B. Weigh yourself daily to monitor for fluid retention.
• C. Drink 2 liters of water each day.
• D. Increase physical activity gradually.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing oneself daily is crucial in monitoring fluid retention, a key aspect in managing heart failure. This helps in detecting early signs of fluid buildup, prompting timely interventions. Choice A is incorrect as the recommended sodium intake for heart failure clients is usually lower, around 2-3 grams daily. Choice C is incorrect because excessive water intake can worsen fluid retention in heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as clients with heart failure should consult healthcare providers before significantly altering their physical activity levels.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Serum potassium 5.4 mEq/L
• B. Flat T waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flat T waves are a characteristic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes a decrease in serum potassium levels, leading to altered cardiac conduction. Flat T waves are associated with hypokalemia-induced cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated ST segments are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Bradycardia is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia may occur due to potassium imbalances affecting the heart's electrical activity.

3. A client who is postoperative following a colon resection reports pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assist the client in changing positions in bed
• B. Administer a PRN dose of morphine
• C. Encourage the client to use relaxation techniques
• D. Offer the client a back massage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of morphine is the most appropriate action to manage postoperative pain in a client following a colon resection. Morphine is a potent analgesic commonly used to relieve moderate to severe pain, especially in postoperative settings. While assisting the client to change positions in bed, encouraging relaxation techniques, and offering a back massage can provide comfort and support, they may not be sufficient in managing the pain following a major surgical procedure like a colon resection. Therefore, the priority intervention for acute postoperative pain control in this scenario is to administer medication like morphine.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Alopecia
• B. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours
• C. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm³
• D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, which can be a sign of complications in clients receiving chemotherapy. Rapid weight gain can be associated with conditions like fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, which need prompt medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are not typically immediate concerns related to chemotherapy. Alopecia (choice A) is a common side effect of chemotherapy, a white blood cell count of 6,000/mm³ (choice C) falls within the normal range, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) (choice D) is slightly elevated but not a critical finding in this context.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone IM to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication using a tuberculin syringe
• B. Administer the medication at a 45-degree angle
• C. Use the dorsogluteal muscle for injection
• D. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: When administering intramuscular injections like ceftriaxone, it is essential to aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication to ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel. Choices A and B are incorrect because ceftriaxone is typically administered using a syringe appropriate for IM injections (not a tuberculin syringe) and injected at a 90-degree angle rather than 45 degrees. Choice C is incorrect because the dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for IM injections due to potential injury to the sciatic nerve and other structures.

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