Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit sodium intake to 4 grams per day.
• B. Weigh yourself daily to monitor for fluid retention.
• C. Drink 2 liters of water each day.
• D. Increase physical activity gradually.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing oneself daily is crucial in monitoring fluid retention, a key aspect in managing heart failure. This helps in detecting early signs of fluid buildup, prompting timely interventions. Choice A is incorrect as the recommended sodium intake for heart failure clients is usually lower, around 2-3 grams daily. Choice C is incorrect because excessive water intake can worsen fluid retention in heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as clients with heart failure should consult healthcare providers before significantly altering their physical activity levels.

2. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor platelet count
• B. Monitor PT/INR
• C. Monitor aPTT
• D. Monitor CBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT for a patient receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to assess and adjust heparin dosage to ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Monitoring the aPTT helps in preventing both clotting and bleeding complications. Platelet count (Choice A) is important to monitor for patients receiving antiplatelet therapy, not heparin. PT/INR (Choice B) is typically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring the complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) is essential for various conditions but is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

3. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer bronchodilators
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Provide humidified air

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy is a critical and priority intervention in such cases as it aims to increase oxygen levels in the blood. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial for specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD, but oxygen should be the initial priority. Administering IV fluids and providing humidified air, while important in certain situations, are not the primary interventions for respiratory distress.

4. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings and is experiencing dumping syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer a refrigerated feeding.
• B. Increase the amount of water used to flush the tubing.
• C. Decrease the rate of the client's feedings.
• D. Instruct the client to move onto their right side.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dumping syndrome is a condition that occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach into the small intestine. Symptoms can include abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and sweating. To manage dumping syndrome in a client receiving enteral tube feedings, the nurse should decrease the rate of the feedings. This intervention helps slow down the movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract, reducing the symptoms. Administering a refrigerated feeding (choice A) or increasing the amount of water used to flush the tubing (choice B) are not appropriate actions for addressing dumping syndrome. Instructing the client to move onto their right side (choice D) is not a relevant intervention for managing dumping syndrome in this scenario.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify which finding as an indication of effective treatment?

• A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all lung fields.
• B. The client reports feeling less anxious.
• C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally.
• D. ABG results include a pH of 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client reporting feeling less anxious is a positive indication of effective treatment for a pulmonary embolism. This suggests that the client's condition is improving psychologically. Option A is incorrect because increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate unresolved issues related to the embolism. Option C is incorrect as diminished breath sounds bilaterally suggest a complication or worsening of the condition. Option D is incorrect as ABG results within normal range do not necessarily indicate effective treatment for a pulmonary embolism, as other complications may still be present.

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