Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit sodium intake to 4 grams per day.
• B. Weigh yourself daily to monitor for fluid retention.
• C. Drink 2 liters of water each day.
• D. Increase physical activity gradually.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing oneself daily is crucial in monitoring fluid retention, a key aspect in managing heart failure. This helps in detecting early signs of fluid buildup, prompting timely interventions. Choice A is incorrect as the recommended sodium intake for heart failure clients is usually lower, around 2-3 grams daily. Choice C is incorrect because excessive water intake can worsen fluid retention in heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as clients with heart failure should consult healthcare providers before significantly altering their physical activity levels.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. What action should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Withhold all medications until after dialysis.
• B. Rehydrate with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension.
• C. Check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis.
• D. Give an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action that the nurse should include in the plan for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is important to prevent complications such as infection or excessive bleeding. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not necessary unless specific medications need to be avoided due to the dialysis process. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension (Choice B) is not directly related to post-dialysis care. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not a standard practice unless there is a specific clinical indication.

3. A client who is postoperative following a colon resection reports pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assist the client in changing positions in bed
• B. Administer a PRN dose of morphine
• C. Encourage the client to use relaxation techniques
• D. Offer the client a back massage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of morphine is the most appropriate action to manage postoperative pain in a client following a colon resection. Morphine is a potent analgesic commonly used to relieve moderate to severe pain, especially in postoperative settings. While assisting the client to change positions in bed, encouraging relaxation techniques, and offering a back massage can provide comfort and support, they may not be sufficient in managing the pain following a major surgical procedure like a colon resection. Therefore, the priority intervention for acute postoperative pain control in this scenario is to administer medication like morphine.

4. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a potassium supplement.
• B. Avoid foods that contain potassium.
• C. Limit your fluid intake while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client supine.
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water.
• C. Administer methylergonovine IM.
• D. Administer calcium gluconate IV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate IV is the correct action when a client displays toxicity from magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it counteracts the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the immediate action needed. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used in postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

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