ATI RN TEST BANK

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?

    A. Anorexia and weakness

    B. Hyperactivity and hunger

    C. Tachycardia and increased urination

    D. Polyphagia and polydipsia

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anorexia and weakness. These symptoms are early indicators of potential digitalis toxicity. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, which can be a sign of toxicity, and weakness can indicate an issue with digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity and hunger, tachycardia and increased urination, as well as polyphagia and polydipsia are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity.

A nurse is reviewing the medication class benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the below clients?

  • A. A client with glaucoma
  • B. A client with renal failure
  • C. A client with hypertension
  • D. A client with insomnia

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzodiazepines should be used cautiously in clients with glaucoma because these medications can increase intraocular pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because renal failure, hypertension, and insomnia are not contraindications for administering benzodiazepines.

A client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

  • A. Cough
  • B. Weight gain
  • C. Dry mouth
  • D. Hyperglycemia

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. Weight gain, dry mouth, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?

  • A. Hypertension
  • B. Hypokalemia
  • C. Increased urine output
  • D. Hyperglycemia

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?

  • A. Productive cough
  • B. Drowsiness
  • C. Vomiting
  • D. Polyuria

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.

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