Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to a client. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to hold their breath as long as possible.
• B. Insert the suppository just past the anal sphincter.
• C. Lubricate the suppository and insert it 1.5 cm (0.6 in) into the rectum.
• D. Place the client in a Sims' position before inserting the suppository.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering a rectal suppository is to place the client in a Sims' position. This position helps facilitate the proper administration of the suppository by allowing better access to the rectum. Encouraging the client to hold their breath as long as possible (Choice A) is unnecessary and not related to the administration of a rectal suppository. Inserting the suppository just past the anal sphincter (Choice B) is incorrect as it may not reach the rectum where it needs to be placed. Lubricating the suppository and inserting it 1.5 cm into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as the suppository needs to be inserted deeper into the rectum for proper absorption.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
• B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
• C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
• D. Sodium 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.

3. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine, and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I should take this medication with food to prevent nausea.''
• B. ''I should take this medication in the evening before bedtime.''
• C. ''I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.''
• D. ''I should stop taking this medication if I develop a rash.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Levothyroxine is a lifelong medication for clients with hypothyroidism, and it should be taken as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect because levothyroxine is usually taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can have adverse effects on thyroid function.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote airway clearance?

• A. Perform chest physiotherapy every 4 hours.
• B. Suction the client every 2 hours.
• C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increased fluid intake helps thin secretions, making it easier for the client to clear their airways. Chest physiotherapy (Choice A) is more focused on mobilizing secretions and may not be suitable for all clients with pneumonia. Suctioning (Choice B) is indicated for clients who have excessive secretions that they cannot manage effectively themselves. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) is important for clients with pneumonia to maintain adequate oxygenation, but it does not directly promote airway clearance.

5. A client is experiencing mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of dread
• B. Heightened perceptual field
• C. Rapid speech
• D. Purposeless activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients experiencing mild anxiety, a heightened perceptual field is a common finding. This means that the individual may be more alert and observant of their surroundings, sometimes to the point of being hyper-aware. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to be associated with mild anxiety. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more commonly seen in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice C) may be observed in some cases of anxiety, but it is not a specific hallmark of mild anxiety. Purposeless activity (Choice D) is more indicative of severe anxiety or other mental health conditions.

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