a nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provid
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.

2. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 1-day old and receiving phototherapy for jaundice. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep the infant's head covered with a cap. This helps regulate the newborn's body temperature during phototherapy. Option A, feeding the infant glucose water every 2 hours, is incorrect because it is not a standard intervention for newborns receiving phototherapy. Option B, ensuring the newborn wears a diaper, may be necessary for hygiene but is not directly related to phototherapy. Option D, applying lotion to the newborn every 4 hours, is unnecessary and not indicated for managing jaundice or phototherapy.

3. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.

4. How should a healthcare professional prepare a patient for a colonoscopy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Giving a bowel prep solution is essential to clean out the colon thoroughly before a colonoscopy. This process is crucial as it helps to achieve a clear view of the colon during the procedure. Providing clear instructions on diet (Choice A) and ensuring the patient has an empty stomach (Choice C) are important steps in the preparation process but may not be sufficient on their own to adequately cleanse the colon. Explaining the procedure in detail (Choice B) is helpful for patient education but does not directly contribute to the physical preparation required for a successful colonoscopy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In schizophrenia, clients often display an inability to identify common objects due to cognitive impairment. This is known as associative agnosia, where individuals struggle to recognize familiar objects, faces, or sounds. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head trauma or drug overdose. Poor problem-solving ability may be seen in various mental health disorders but is not specific to schizophrenia. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is more commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders or somatic delusions, not a typical finding in schizophrenia.

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