ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Proteinuria of 1+.
- B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
- D. Nonpitting ankle edema.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.
2. A healthcare professional is providing discharge teaching for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which resource should be provided?
- A. Personal blogs about managing the adverse effects of diabetes medications.
- B. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine.
- C. Diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference.
- D. Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Food exchange lists from the American Diabetes Association are a valuable resource for meal planning in diabetes. These lists provide guidelines for portion control and help individuals make healthier food choices. Personal blogs may not always provide accurate and evidence-based information. Food label recommendations are important but may not specifically address meal planning for diabetes. Diabetes medication information is essential but not the primary focus when educating about dietary management for type 2 diabetes.
3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should weigh yourself once a week while taking this medication.
- B. You should eat foods rich in potassium while taking this medication.
- C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
- D. You should take this medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Heart rate of 60/min
- D. Sodium 140 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart rate of 60/min. A heart rate of 60/min is borderline bradycardia, which can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so any further decrease in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are within the normal range and not specifically related to potential digoxin toxicity, so they do not require immediate reporting.
5. Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving digoxin?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor calcium levels
- D. Monitor magnesium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in a patient receiving digoxin. Hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin, leading to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B), calcium levels (Choice C), and magnesium levels (Choice D) are also important aspects of patient care, but potassium levels are most critical in patients on digoxin therapy.
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