Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a mental health unit is planning room assignments for four clients. Which of the following clients should be closest to the nurse's station?

• A. A client who has an anxiety disorder and is experiencing moderate anxiety.
• B. A client who has somatic symptom disorder and reports chronic pain.
• C. A client who has depressive disorder and reports feeling hopeless.
• D. A client who has bipolar disorder and impaired social interactions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with bipolar disorder and impaired social interactions should be placed closest to the nurse's station for closer monitoring. Clients with bipolar disorder may experience mood swings, including manic episodes that can lead to impulsive behaviors or aggression. Placing such a client near the nurse's station allows for quick intervention and monitoring of their social interactions, especially if they are impaired. The other options, such as anxiety disorder, somatic symptom disorder, and depressive disorder, do not inherently require immediate proximity to the nurse's station based on the information provided.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees during feedings.
• B. Place the client in the left lateral position for 30 minutes after feedings.
• C. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding.
• D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to prevent aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This positioning helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the client in the left lateral position after feedings does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the tube with sterile water before each feeding is important for tube patency but does not specifically prevent aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours is necessary to monitor the client's tolerance to feedings but is not a direct preventive measure against aspiration.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.

4. A client is 2 days postoperative following a hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Redness and warmth in the calf
• C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Heart rate of 96/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication following hip replacement surgery. It is crucial to report this finding promptly for further evaluation and intervention. The other options, heart rates of 88/min and 96/min, are within normal limits for an adult and may not require immediate reporting. A urine output of 30 mL/hr is concerning for decreased kidney perfusion, but the priority in this case is the potential DVT due to its severe implications.

5. During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?

• A. A client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min.
• B. A client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy.
• C. A client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis.
• D. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.

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