a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to eval
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.

2. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine output of 40 mL/hr. A low urine output may indicate kidney complications, such as acute kidney injury, which is a critical finding postoperatively. The nurse should report this immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client who is 1 day postoperative following hip replacement surgery and do not indicate immediate concerns that require reporting to the provider.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about insulin administration. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to rotate injection sites within the same region to prevent tissue damage. By rotating sites, the client can prevent lipodystrophy, which is a condition characterized by the loss or change in body fat at the site of repeated injections. This practice also helps to ensure proper insulin absorption. Storing unopened vials of insulin in the refrigerator (Choice A) is correct, not in the freezer, as freezing can damage the insulin. Administering insulin at a 90-degree angle (Choice C) is more appropriate for subcutaneous injections, while a 45-degree angle is used for intramuscular injections. Massaging the injection site after administering insulin (Choice D) is not recommended as it can affect insulin absorption rates.

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