a nurse is preparing an adolescent client who has pneumonia for percussion vibration and postural drainage prior to the procedure which of the followi
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Adult Medical Surgical Online Practice 2023 A

1. Prior to performing percussion, vibration, and postural drainage on an adolescent client with pneumonia, which of the following nursing actions should the nurse complete first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating percussion, vibration, and postural drainage, the nurse should first auscultate the lung fields to assess the baseline lung sounds and identify areas of congestion or abnormality. This initial assessment helps the nurse to tailor the percussion and drainage techniques effectively. Assessing pulse and respirations, sputum characteristics, and providing instructions to the client for exhalation are important steps in the procedure but should follow the initial auscultation to ensure a comprehensive and individualized care approach.

2. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is taking isoniazid (INH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Regular monitoring of liver function tests is crucial for clients taking isoniazid (INH) due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid can cause liver damage, and early detection through routine liver function tests can help prevent severe complications.

3. A client takes atorvastatin (Lipitor), with laboratory results showing a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 33 mg/dL and creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: There is a drug-food interaction between statins and grapefruit that can lead to acute kidney failure. The client has elevated renal laboratory results, indicating kidney involvement. The nurse should ask if the client consumes grapefruit or grapefruit juice. While dehydration can elevate BUN, the increase in creatinine is more specific for kidney injury.

4. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

5. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

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