Nursing Elites

1. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

2. A client is receiving discharge teaching after a total hip replacement. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
• B. I can sleep on my side as long as I use a pillow between my legs.
• C. I will avoid bending at the waist to pick things up.
• D. I can bend down to tie my shoes after 2 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a total hip replacement, clients should avoid bending at the waist past 90 degrees for at least 6 weeks to prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis. Bending down to tie shoes involves significant hip flexion and should be avoided during the initial postoperative period to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of complications.

3. A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active, and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the client to walk for 5 minutes each hour.
• B. Refer the client for smoking cessation classes.
• C. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing.
• D. Explain to the client that sometimes no cause for the disease is found.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including pulmonary embolism (PE). In a case where a client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this genetic disorder is crucial to determine if it is a contributing factor. Encouraging the client to walk or referring them to smoking cessation classes, while beneficial for overall health, are not directly relevant to the development of a PE in this specific case. While it is true that sometimes no cause for a disease is found, prematurely assuming this without appropriate investigations may lead to missed opportunities for preventive measures or treatments.

4. A client had an evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Observe for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the evacuation site.
• B. Assess for an increase in temperature.
• C. Check the oximeter.
• D. Monitor for manifestations of increased intracranial pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client who had an evacuation of a subdural hematoma, the nurse's priority is to check the oximeter. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to ensure adequate tissue oxygenation, especially after such a procedure. This assessment helps in early detection of hypoxemia, which can be detrimental to the client's recovery. While observing for CSF leaks, assessing for temperature changes, and monitoring for signs of increased intracranial pressure are important, checking the oximeter takes precedence to address immediate oxygenation needs.

5. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

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