Nursing Elites

1. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

2. A client with a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system needs to be transported to the x-ray department. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Clamp the chest tube prior to transferring the client to a wheelchair.
• B. Disconnect the chest tube from the drainage system during transport.
• C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest at all times.
• D. Empty the collection chamber prior to transport.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When transporting a client with a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system, it is crucial to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest at all times. This positioning prevents the backflow of drainage into the client's chest, reducing the risk of complications. Clamping the chest tube, disconnecting it from the drainage system, or emptying the collection chamber are incorrect actions and can potentially harm the client or lead to complications.

3. A nurse in the PACU is assessing a client who has an endotracheal tube (ET) in place and observes the absence of left-sided chest wall expansion upon respiration. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

• A. Blockage of the ET tube by the client's tongue
• B. Passage of the ET tube into the esophagus
• C. Movement of the ET tube into the right main bronchus
• D. Infection of the vocal cords

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse observes the absence of left-sided chest wall expansion upon respiration, it indicates that the endotracheal tube (ET) may have migrated into the right main bronchus, leading to uneven chest expansion. This can result in inadequate ventilation to the left lung, causing respiratory compromise. The other options, such as blockage of the ET tube by the client's tongue, passage of the ET tube into the esophagus, and infection of the vocal cords, do not directly explain the observed chest wall asymmetry and respiratory distress.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer albuterol syrup 1.6 mg PO tid. Available is albuterol 2 mg/5mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 4 mL
• B. 6 mL
• C. 10 mL
• D. 5.5 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL of albuterol syrup needed per dose, first, determine how many milligrams are in the prescribed dose: 1.6 mg. Next, set up a proportion to find the equivalent mL for 1.6 mg using the given concentration of 2 mg/5mL. The calculation is: (1.6 mg x 5 mL) / 2 mg = 4 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 4 mL to administer per dose.

5. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

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