ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items should the nurse offer to the client?
- A. Tomato soup
- B. Apple juice
- C. Chicken broth
- D. Cranberry juice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Chicken broth. A clear liquid diet includes clear fluids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Chicken broth is allowed on a clear liquid diet as it is a clear liquid, while tomato soup, apple juice, and cranberry juice are not clear liquids. Tomato soup is a thicker substance and not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Apple juice and cranberry juice are also not clear liquids because they contain pulp and are not transparent like broth.
2. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. The cord stump will fall off in 5 days.
- B. Contact the provider if the cord stump turns black.
- C. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily.
- D. Keep the cord stump dry until it falls off.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for cord care is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This helps prevent infection and promotes healing. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of when the cord stump falls off can vary, usually between 1-3 weeks. Choice B is incorrect as a black cord stump can be a normal part of the healing process, so it is unnecessary to contact the provider for this reason. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily is not recommended as it can delay healing and cause irritation.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has mild persistent asthma and has been prescribed montelukast. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication can be used to help you during an acute asthma attack.
- B. This medication helps decrease swelling and mucus production.
- C. This medication should be taken before exercise.
- D. This medication should be taken daily in the evening.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Montelukast should be taken daily in the evening for long-term control of asthma, rather than for immediate relief. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as montelukast works by blocking leukotrienes, not by decreasing swelling and mucus production. Choice C is incorrect as montelukast is not specifically taken before exercise.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
- B. aPTT 60 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
- D. INR 1.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.
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