a nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for cord care is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This helps prevent infection and promotes healing. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of when the cord stump falls off can vary, usually between 1-3 weeks. Choice B is incorrect as a black cord stump can be a normal part of the healing process, so it is unnecessary to contact the provider for this reason. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily is not recommended as it can delay healing and cause irritation.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery and is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common response to acute pain due to increased sympathetic nervous system activity. Options A and B, Bradycardia and Hypotension, are unlikely findings in a client experiencing acute pain as pain usually triggers an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and blood pressure. Option D, Hyperactive bowel sounds, is not typically associated with acute pain.

3. What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism. Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in these patients to prevent hypoxemia and support oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering anticoagulants may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.

4. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a new onset of tachypnea can indicate a respiratory complication, which requires immediate assessment. Sinus arrhythmia, epidural analgesia with weakness, and a hemoglobin A1C level of 6.8% in a client with diabetes do not pose immediate life-threatening concerns that require urgent assessment compared to the potential respiratory issues associated with tachypnea.

5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

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