ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Peripheral edema.
- B. Cough with frothy sputum.
- C. Jugular vein distention.
- D. Dependent edema.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jugular vein distention. In left-sided heart failure, the left ventricle fails to efficiently pump blood to the body, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation. This increased pressure can lead to symptoms like jugular vein distention, as blood backs up in the pulmonary circulation and causes congestion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, cough with frothy sputum is a sign of pulmonary edema which can occur in left-sided heart failure but is not as specific as jugular vein distention, and dependent edema is also more indicative of right-sided heart failure due to fluid retention and increased venous pressure in the systemic circulation.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. The client reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg PO
- B. Administer oxycodone 10 mg PO
- C. Reposition the client to the unaffected side
- D. Apply a cold compress to the affected knee
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take when a client reports severe postoperative pain of 8 out of 10 is to administer oxycodone 10 mg PO. Oxycodone is a potent analgesic that is more effective in managing severe pain compared to ibuprofen, making choice A incorrect. Repositioning the client to the unaffected side or applying a cold compress may provide some comfort but are not the priority interventions for severe postoperative pain, making choices C and D less appropriate.
3. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?
- A. Administer isoniazid by mouth daily.
- B. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- C. Wear a surgical mask when transporting the client.
- D. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.
4. A nurse is caring for an infant who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the nurse identify as an expected finding?
- A. Weak femoral pulses.
- B. Frequent nosebleeds.
- C. Upper extremity hypotension.
- D. Increased intracranial pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Weak femoral pulses are an expected finding in an infant with coarctation of the aorta. The narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, resulting in weak or absent femoral pulses. Frequent nosebleeds (Choice B) are not typically associated with coarctation of the aorta. Upper extremity hypotension (Choice C) is not a common finding in coarctation of the aorta; instead, blood pressure is usually elevated in the upper extremities. Increased intracranial pressure (Choice D) is not directly related to coarctation of the aorta.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access