ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use to help maintain the integrity of the client's skin?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed no more than 45 degrees
- B. Apply cornstarch to keep sensitive skin areas dry
- C. Massage the skin over the client's bony prominences
- D. Use a transfer device to lift the client up in bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a transfer device to lift the client up in bed. This intervention helps reduce friction and the risk of skin breakdown, aiding in the prevention of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed no more than 45 degrees can help with respiratory issues but does not directly address skin integrity. Applying cornstarch may lead to further skin irritation. Massaging over bony prominences can increase the risk of skin damage rather than maintaining skin integrity.
2. A client with cirrhosis and ascites requires a care plan. Which intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Increase the client's sodium intake
- B. Increase the client's saturated fat intake
- C. Decrease the client's carbohydrate intake
- D. Decrease the client's fluid intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cirrhosis with ascites, decreasing fluid intake is crucial to manage the condition. This helps prevent further fluid accumulation in the abdomen. Increasing sodium intake (Choice A) can worsen fluid retention and edema. Increasing saturated fat intake (Choice B) is not recommended as it can contribute to liver damage. Decreasing carbohydrate intake (Choice C) is not directly related to managing ascites in cirrhosis.
3. A client is prescribed 1g of potassium phosphate IV to be infused continuously over 6 hr. Available is 1 g in 250 ml of dextrose 5%. What rate should the nurse set the IV pump to run at?
- A. 40 ml/hr
- B. 42 ml/hr
- C. 44 ml/hr
- D. 46 ml/hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the IV rate, divide the total volume by the total time in hours. In this case, 1 g in 250 ml is to be infused over 6 hours. Therefore, 250 ml / 6 hr = 42 ml/hr. This means the IV pump should be set to run at 42 ml/hr. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate based on the provided information.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for amoxicillin clavulanate to treat pharyngitis. Which statement indicates understanding?
- A. I will double my dose if I miss one
- B. I should take this medication on an empty stomach between meals
- C. I will take the medication until my sore throat goes away
- D. I will stop taking this medication if I develop itching
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client should never double the dose if a dose is missed. This can lead to an overdose, which can cause serious adverse effects. Instead, the client should take the next dose as scheduled or consult the provider for guidance.
5. A client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should expect dark tarry stools.
- B. I should expect increased bruising.
- C. I will not get as many infections.
- D. I will expect the color of my urine to be amber.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When taking ferrous sulfate, dark tarry stools can occur as a common side effect due to the iron content in the medication. This is a normal response to the medication and not a cause for concern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased bruising, reduced infections, and amber-colored urine are not expected side effects of ferrous sulfate.
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