ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?
- A. Administering an oral antibiotic to a client
- B. Performing an admission assessment of a client
- C. Creating new teaching for a guardian of a toddler
- D. Administering IV conscious sedation to a client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oral antibiotics is within the scope of practice for an LPN and can be safely delegated. LPNs are trained to administer medications, including oral ones. Performing an admission assessment (Choice B) involves critical thinking and comprehensive evaluation, typically done by registered nurses. Creating new teaching material (Choice C) requires specialized knowledge and is usually the responsibility of a nurse with additional training in education. Administering IV conscious sedation (Choice D) is a high-risk task that requires advanced skills and should be performed by a registered nurse or higher-level provider.
2. A nurse manager is implementing a quality improvement project to reduce the number of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections at the facility. Which of the following actions should the nurse manager take first?
- A. Develop an MRSA protocol for implementation.
- B. Provide educational in-services for staff.
- C. Evaluate outcomes resulting from interventions.
- D. Conduct a chart review to evaluate precipitating factors of clients who develop MRSA.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Conducting a chart review to evaluate the precipitating factors of clients who develop MRSA is the initial step in reducing these infections. By identifying factors contributing to MRSA infections, the nurse manager can develop targeted interventions. Developing an MRSA protocol (choice A) and providing educational in-services (choice B) would be premature without understanding the specific factors at play. Evaluating outcomes (choice C) should come after implementing interventions based on the findings from the chart review.
3. What is the primary intervention for a client diagnosed with delirium?
- A. Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion
- B. Administer medication to reverse the symptoms of delirium
- C. Provide opportunities for social interaction to reduce isolation
- D. Encourage the client to remain physically active
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion. For clients diagnosed with delirium, creating a tranquil setting can help reduce agitation and disorientation. This intervention aims to decrease stimuli that may exacerbate symptoms. Administering medication (choice B) is not the primary intervention for delirium; it is usually reserved for specific underlying causes. While social interaction (choice C) and physical activity (choice D) are beneficial for overall well-being, they are not the primary interventions for managing delirium.
4. A client with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order has requested resuscitation during a family visit. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Follow the client's wishes and start resuscitation.
- B. Explain that the DNR must be honored.
- C. Ignore the client's request.
- D. Consult with the family regarding the decision.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nurses have a legal and ethical obligation to honor a client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order, regardless of any request for resuscitation during a family visit. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that the DNR order must be respected. Choice A is incorrect because starting resuscitation against the client's documented wishes goes against the principle of autonomy. Choice C is inappropriate as it disregards the client's autonomy and legal directives. Choice D is not the best option as the nurse should prioritize honoring the client's decision as per the DNR order.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Improvement in visual acuity
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight loss of 1.36 kg (3 lb) in 24 hours
- D. Increased urinary output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.
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