ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is assigned to care for a client with unstable blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Monitor the client every two hours.
- B. Continuously monitor the client's vital signs.
- C. Wait for the healthcare provider to provide instructions.
- D. Ask the healthcare provider for specific instructions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the case of a client with unstable blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs. This allows for immediate detection of any fluctuations in blood pressure and timely intervention if necessary. Choice A, monitoring every two hours, may not provide real-time information needed for prompt intervention. Choices C and D suggest waiting for instructions from the healthcare provider, which could cause a delay in addressing the unstable blood pressure, potentially leading to adverse outcomes. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs.
2. A nurse manager on an acute care unit is preparing a staff presentation about promoting cost-effective care. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to include in the presentation?
- A. Change IV solution bags every 36 hr.
- B. Avoid the delegation of hygiene care to assistive personnel (AP)
- C. Wear sterile gloves when removing urinary retention catheters.
- D. Educate staff about the correct use of personal protective equipment (PPE) for isolation precautions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Teaching staff proper use of PPE helps reduce the spread of infections and promotes cost-effective care.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2. To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg of digoxin, the nurse should administer two 0.125 mg tablets. This calculation ensures that the patient receives the correct amount of medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate dosage needed based on the available tablets and prescribed dose.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Improvement in visual acuity
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight loss of 1.36 kg (3 lb) in 24 hours
- D. Increased urinary output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.
5. A client has a new prescription for beclomethasone inhaler to use with an albuterol inhaler for asthma maintenance. What should the nurse instruct the client?
- A. Skip doses if breathing improves
- B. Use the albuterol inhaler first
- C. Gargle with water after each use
- D. Store inhaler in the refrigerator
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to gargle with water after each use of the beclomethasone inhaler. Beclomethasone can cause oral thrush, and gargling with water helps prevent this complication. Choice A is incorrect because the client should not skip doses even if breathing improves, as the medications are prescribed for maintenance. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific instruction to use the albuterol inhaler first in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect because inhalers should not be stored in the refrigerator unless specified by the manufacturer.
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