ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours
- B. Place the client in a supine position while resting
- C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, it is important to involve the client in cardiac rehabilitation to help them recover and manage their condition effectively. Performing an ECG every 12 hours is not necessary unless there are specific indications for it. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can increase venous return, potentially worsening cardiac workload. Drawing troponin levels every 4 hours is excessive and not recommended as troponin levels usually peak within 24-48 hours post-MI and then gradually decline.
2. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take a daily aspirin to prevent blood clots.
- B. I will call my provider if I experience swelling in my hands.
- C. I should increase my calcium intake to prevent seizures.
- D. I will restrict my protein intake to prevent further kidney damage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates a need to revise the client's plan of care?
- A. Serum sodium 144 mEq/L.
- B. HbA1c 10%.
- C. Random serum glucose 190 mg/dL.
- D. Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated random serum glucose levels of 190 mg/dL indicate hyperglycemia and poor blood sugar control, requiring a revised plan of care. HbA1c levels above 7% also indicate long-term poor control of blood sugar. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate a need for a plan of care revision.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 58/min
- B. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours
- C. Respiratory rate of 20/min
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A heart rate of 58/min is indicative of bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity, which should be reported immediately. While weight gain, respiratory rate, and temperature are important parameters to monitor, they are not as critical as identifying bradycardia in a client taking digoxin.
5. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient with fluid overload?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for edema
- C. Monitor input and output
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in assessing fluid retention accurately in a patient with fluid overload. Changes in weight can indicate fluid accumulation or loss, providing valuable information for healthcare providers. Checking for edema (choice B) is important but may not always accurately reflect total body fluid status. Monitoring input and output (choice C) and blood pressure (choice D) are also essential aspects of patient assessment, but they may not directly reflect the extent of fluid overload as effectively as monitoring daily weight.
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