ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A client is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following interventions should be implemented to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection.
- B. Massage the uterus every 4 hours.
- C. Apply ice packs to the perineum.
- D. Administer methylergonovine IM.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering methylergonovine intramuscularly helps contract the uterus, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not directly related to preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine massage (Choice B) is beneficial to prevent uterine atony, but methylergonovine is a more specific intervention to prevent hemorrhage. Applying ice packs to the perineum (Choice C) is helpful for perineal pain and swelling, not for preventing postpartum hemorrhage.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who speaks a language different from the nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request an interpreter of a different sex from the client
- B. Request a family member or friend to interpret information for the client
- C. Direct attention toward the interpreter when speaking to the client
- D. Review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client who speaks a different language is to review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter. This ensures compliance with best practices for communication when using interpreters, maintaining accuracy and confidentiality. Requesting an interpreter of a different sex from the client (Choice A) is not relevant to effective communication. Asking a family member or friend to interpret (Choice B) can lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Directing attention toward the interpreter (Choice C) is not as crucial as understanding the facility's policy on interpreter use.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
- A. Flush the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride before feedings.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position during feedings.
- C. Administer the feedings over 30 minutes.
- D. Warm the formula before administering it.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position during enteral feedings. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting the downward flow of the feeding and reducing the risk of regurgitation into the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride before feedings is not directly related to preventing aspiration. Choice C is incorrect because the rate of administration does not directly impact the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because warming the formula does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration during enteral feedings.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Baked chicken
- B. Bananas
- C. Lean cuts of beef
- D. Canned soup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Canned soup. Canned soups are typically high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention in clients with chronic kidney disease. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing this condition. Choice A, baked chicken, is a lean protein source that is generally recommended for individuals with kidney disease. Bananas (Choice B) are high in potassium, so clients with kidney disease may need to limit their intake depending on their individual treatment plan. Lean cuts of beef (Choice C) can be a good source of protein and iron for clients with kidney disease as long as portion sizes are controlled to manage protein intake.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
- B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
- C. Heart rate of 92/min.
- D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.
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