Nursing Elites

1. A client is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following interventions should be implemented to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection.
• B. Massage the uterus every 4 hours.
• C. Apply ice packs to the perineum.
• D. Administer methylergonovine IM.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering methylergonovine intramuscularly helps contract the uterus, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not directly related to preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine massage (Choice B) is beneficial to prevent uterine atony, but methylergonovine is a more specific intervention to prevent hemorrhage. Applying ice packs to the perineum (Choice C) is helpful for perineal pain and swelling, not for preventing postpartum hemorrhage.

2. A client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking fluids during the test.
• B. I will need to drink a sugar solution before the test.
• C. This test will monitor how my baby is responding to contractions.
• D. This test will assess for fetal lung maturity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should drink a sugar solution for a glucose challenge test, which is part of the nonstress test protocol during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because adequate hydration is generally recommended before the test. Choice C is incorrect as the nonstress test monitors the baby's heart rate in response to its own movements, not contractions. Choice D is incorrect as the nonstress test does not assess fetal lung maturity.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.

4. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with meals to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Take this medication at the same time every day.
• C. Notify your provider if you experience chest pain or palpitations.
• D. Take this medication with antacids to reduce indigestion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take this medication at the same time every day.' It is crucial to take levothyroxine at the same time each day to maintain consistent thyroid hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, usually in the morning. Choice C is important but not specific to the administration of levothyroxine. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.

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