a nurse is planning care for a client who is 4 hours postpartum which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent postpartum
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A client is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following interventions should be implemented to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering methylergonovine intramuscularly helps contract the uterus, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not directly related to preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine massage (Choice B) is beneficial to prevent uterine atony, but methylergonovine is a more specific intervention to prevent hemorrhage. Applying ice packs to the perineum (Choice C) is helpful for perineal pain and swelling, not for preventing postpartum hemorrhage.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress management techniques can help reduce the frequency and severity of Raynaud's episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a cool temperature can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect as epinephrine is not typically used for Raynaud's disease. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not the first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.

3. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

5. A client with multiple sclerosis and dysphagia requires care. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For clients with dysphagia, especially those with multiple sclerosis, thin liquids can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids are recommended to reduce the risk of aspiration and help with swallowing difficulties. Positioning the client supine with the head of the bed flat can further increase the risk of aspiration. Having the client tuck their chin while swallowing is a strategy used for some types of dysphagia but not specifically for multiple sclerosis-related dysphagia. Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth does not address the swallowing difficulties associated with dysphagia.

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