Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Keep the affected leg elevated as needed.
• B. Apply ice packs to the affected knee as prescribed.
• C. Encourage the client to ambulate as soon as possible.
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises as instructed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to ambulate as soon as possible is essential in preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis post knee arthroplasty. While keeping the affected leg elevated and applying ice packs can be beneficial in certain situations, early ambulation takes precedence in this case. Performing range-of-motion exercises hourly may not be necessary and could potentially cause more harm than good if not done correctly or excessively.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to a client. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to hold their breath as long as possible.
• B. Insert the suppository just past the anal sphincter.
• C. Lubricate the suppository and insert it 1.5 cm (0.6 in) into the rectum.
• D. Place the client in a Sims' position before inserting the suppository.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering a rectal suppository is to place the client in a Sims' position. This position helps facilitate the proper administration of the suppository by allowing better access to the rectum. Encouraging the client to hold their breath as long as possible (Choice A) is unnecessary and not related to the administration of a rectal suppository. Inserting the suppository just past the anal sphincter (Choice B) is incorrect as it may not reach the rectum where it needs to be placed. Lubricating the suppository and inserting it 1.5 cm into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as the suppository needs to be inserted deeper into the rectum for proper absorption.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 12/min
• D. Heart rate of 88/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
• B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
• C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
• D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to decreased blood clotting ability. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can lead to bleeding in thrombocytopenic clients. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is important for immunocompromised clients to prevent exposure to pathogens but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is a precaution to reduce the risk of infection in immunocompromised clients but does not directly address the complications of thrombocytopenia.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

• A. aPTT 75 seconds.
• B. INR 1.2.
• C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
• D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

Similar Questions