a nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease the nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indicati
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney dysfunction, necessitating hemodialysis. The other options, BUN of 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus of 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not serve as indications for hemodialysis.

2. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client's blood type and Rh factor is crucial before administering blood products to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because PRBCs are typically infused over a specific time frame based on hospital policy and client condition, not necessarily over 8 hours. Option C is incorrect as PRBCs are usually administered through a larger gauge catheter to prevent hemolysis. Option D is incorrect because PRBCs are typically administered with normal saline and not lactated Ringer's solution.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

5. A client with asthma is being taught how to use a peak flow meter by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should exhale quickly and forcefully into the peak flow meter after taking a deep breath to measure peak expiratory flow. Choice A is incorrect as blowing as hard as possible may not provide an accurate reading. Choice C is incorrect because inhaling deeply before blowing can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as holding the breath before exhaling is not part of using a peak flow meter.

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A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has chronic kidney disease. The client's potassium level is 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
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