a nurse is planning care for a client who has acute diverticulitis which of the following interventions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client with acute diverticulitis should have which intervention included in the care plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute diverticulitis is to initiate a low-fiber diet. A low-fiber diet helps manage acute diverticulitis by reducing irritation to the colon, allowing it to heal. Administering a cleansing enema (Choice A) can worsen diverticulitis by increasing pressure within the colon. Applying moist heat to the abdomen (Choice C) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying cause. Providing a clear liquid diet (Choice D) is not ideal for diverticulitis management as it lacks the necessary nutrients for healing and may not provide enough bulk to prevent further irritation.

2. A nurse is caring for a toddler who has acute lymphocytic leukemia. In which of the following activities should the toddler participate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is playing with a large plastic truck. This activity is suitable for toddlers as it promotes their development, encourages fine motor skills, and provides an opportunity for imaginative play. Looking at alphabet flashcards may be more suitable for older children who are learning letters and words. Using scissors to cut out paper shapes may pose a safety risk for a toddler, as they may not have the dexterity or understanding required for this activity. Watching a cartoon in the dayroom is a passive activity and does not actively engage the toddler in physical or cognitive development.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which is paleness of the skin, is a common sign of anemia due to a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin levels. This results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to the paleness of the skin. Choice A, increased appetite, is not typically associated with anemia. Choice C, tachycardia (increased heart rate), can be present in anemia as the body compensates for decreased oxygenation. Choice D, hypertension (high blood pressure), is not a common finding in anemia; instead, low blood pressure may be observed due to decreased blood volume.

4. A nurse is reviewing the results of an arterial blood gas analysis of a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following results should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, there is impaired gas exchange, leading to retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) and subsequent respiratory acidosis. A PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg is higher than the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) and is indicative of respiratory acidosis in COPD. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with COPD. PaO2 may be decreased, HCO3 may be elevated to compensate for acidosis, and pH may be lower than 7.35 due to respiratory acidosis in COPD.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

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