Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new colostomy requires care planning by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days.
• B. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is half full.
• C. Apply a skin barrier around the stoma.
• D. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and leakage by maintaining a clean and secure seal around the stoma. Option B is incorrect because it is more important to change the pouch regularly rather than emptying it when half full. Option C is incorrect as applying a skin barrier is typically done during the initial application of the pouch, not during regular changes. Option D is incorrect because alcohol can be too harsh for the peristomal skin and can cause irritation.

2. During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?

• A. A client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min.
• B. A client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy.
• C. A client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis.
• D. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

4. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

5. A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (AP) discussing a client in an elevator. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Contact the client's family about the incident.
• B. Notify the client's provider about the incident.
• C. File a complaint with the facility's ethics committee.
• D. Report the incident to the AP's charge nurse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report the incident to the AP's charge nurse. This is important because discussing a client's information violates confidentiality policies. Contacting the client's family (Choice A) is not appropriate as it may breach confidentiality further. Notifying the client's provider (Choice B) is not the initial action to take in this situation, as addressing it within the facility should come first. Filing a complaint with the facility's ethics committee (Choice C) is not the immediate step and might not directly address the issue at hand.

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