ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?
- A. Postprandial blood glucose
- B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
- C. Glucose tolerance test
- D. Fasting blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) is the most accurate test for long-term management of blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes mellitus. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing valuable information on the effectiveness of treatment and disease control. Postprandial blood glucose, glucose tolerance test, and fasting blood glucose are essential for monitoring blood glucose levels at specific times but do not offer the same insight into long-term disease management as HbA1c.
2. When discussing clients designating a health care proxy in situations requiring a durable power of attorney for health care (DPAHC), what information should the charge nurse include?
- A. The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the client's ability to do so.
- B. The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises.
- C. The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia.
- D. The proxy should manage legal issues for the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The charge nurse should include information that the proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia. This is a key function of a durable power of attorney for health care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a health care proxy's role is specifically related to making health care decisions, not financial decisions, legal issues, or decisions made under anesthesia.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Redness at the insertion site.
- B. Swelling of the arm above the insertion site.
- C. A bruised area around the insertion site.
- D. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Swelling of the arm above the insertion site is concerning as it can indicate complications like thrombosis, which require immediate attention. Redness at the insertion site is common and expected in the initial stages. A bruised area around the insertion site may result from the insertion procedure and is usually not alarming unless it worsens or becomes larger. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is within the normal range and is not directly related to PICC complications.
4. A nurse is preparing to reposition a client who had a stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Raise the side rails on both sides of the client's bed during repositioning.
- B. Reposition the client without assistive devices.
- C. Discuss the client's preferences to determine a repositioning schedule.
- D. Evaluate the client's ability to help with repositioning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's ability to help with repositioning. When caring for a client who had a stroke, assessing their ability to participate in repositioning is crucial for promoting safety and encouraging their involvement in their care. This evaluation helps determine the level of assistance needed and supports the client's autonomy. Option A is incorrect because raising the side rails alone does not address the client's active involvement in repositioning. Option B is incorrect as using assistive devices may be necessary for safe repositioning. Option C is incorrect as discussing preferences is important but does not directly address the client's ability to assist in repositioning.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Increase oxytocin infusion.
- B. Decrease oxytocin infusion.
- C. Maintain oxytocin infusion.
- D. Discontinue oxytocin infusion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, the contractions are too frequent and prolonged, which can lead to uterine rupture or fetal distress. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, potentially causing harm to the mother and fetus. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion might not be sufficient to address the issue, making discontinuation the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of both the client and the baby.
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