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ATI Fundamentals
1. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client following the insertion of a chest tube and drainage system. Which of the following should NOT be included in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours.
- B. Check for continuous bubbling in the suction chamber.
- C. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
- D. Obtain a chest x-ray
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Stripping the drainage tubing is an outdated practice and can cause complications. Encouraging the client to cough helps with lung expansion, checking for continuous bubbling ensures proper functioning of the chest tube system, and obtaining a chest x-ray helps to assess the position of the chest tube and re-expansion of the lung. Therefore, stripping the drainage tubing every 4 hours should not be included in the plan of care.
2. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. An alert chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
- B. An 88-year-old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to bed at home
- C. An apathetic 63-year-old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
- D. A confused 78-year-old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.
3. When teaching a client with tuberculosis, which statement should the nurse include?
- A. You will need to continue taking the multi-medication regimen for 4 months.
- B. You will need to provide sputum samples every 4 weeks to monitor the effectiveness of the medication.
- C. You will need to remain hospitalized for treatment.
- D. You will need to wear a mask at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring the effectiveness of tuberculosis medication is crucial to ensure the treatment is working properly. Regular sputum samples help in assessing the response to the medication. This monitoring can guide adjustments in the treatment plan if needed. Options A and C are incorrect as they do not reflect essential aspects of tuberculosis treatment. Option D is not a standard recommendation for tuberculosis treatment and may lead to misconceptions.
4. When caring for a client in the advanced stage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), which of the following referrals is the nurse's priority?
- A. Psychologist
- B. Social worker
- C. Occupational therapist
- D. Speech-language pathologist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the advanced stage of ALS, speech and swallowing difficulties become significant. As a result, the priority referral for the nurse would be a speech-language pathologist. This professional can assist in managing communication challenges and provide strategies to address swallowing issues, ensuring the client's safety and quality of life.
5. A client has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Potassium level
- C. Creatinine clearance
- D. Prealbumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Generalized petechiae and ecchymoses can indicate a potential issue with platelet function or count. Therefore, the most relevant laboratory test to evaluate this condition would be a platelet count. Platelet count helps assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for clotting and preventing bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels can provide important information about a client's bleeding risk and overall hematologic health.
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