Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client following the insertion of a chest tube and drainage system. Which of the following should NOT be included in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours.
• B. Check for continuous bubbling in the suction chamber.
• C. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
• D. Obtain a chest x-ray

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stripping the drainage tubing is an outdated practice and can cause complications. Encouraging the client to cough helps with lung expansion, checking for continuous bubbling ensures proper functioning of the chest tube system, and obtaining a chest x-ray helps to assess the position of the chest tube and re-expansion of the lung. Therefore, stripping the drainage tubing every 4 hours should not be included in the plan of care.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following early manifestations of hypoxemia should the professional recognize?

• A. Confusion
• B. Pale skin
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pale skin is an early manifestation of hypoxemia due to decreased oxygenation of the blood. The skin may appear pale as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs in response to low oxygen levels. Confusion, bradycardia, and hypotension may occur as hypoxemia worsens, but pale skin is one of the initial signs that healthcare professionals should recognize when assessing a client experiencing respiratory distress.

3. When preparing an in-service on malpractice issues in nursing, which of the following examples should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Leaving a nasogastric tube clamped after administering oral medication
• B. Documenting communication with a provider in the progress notes of the client's medical record
• C. Administering potassium via IV bolus
• D. Placing a yellow bracelet on a client who is at risk for falls

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering potassium via IV bolus is a high-risk procedure that requires careful attention and adherence to established protocols to prevent serious complications like cardiac arrest. Errors in administering IV medications, especially potent ones like potassium, can lead to severe harm to the patient and potential legal consequences for the healthcare provider. Therefore, including this example in the in-service on malpractice issues helps emphasize the importance of safe medication administration practices and the potential implications of errors.

4. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
• B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
• C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
• D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.

5. How many milliliters are equal to 20 cc?

• A. 2
• B. 20
• C. 2000
• D. 20000

Correct answer: B

Rationale: 1 cc (cubic centimeter) is equal to 1 ml. Therefore, 20 cc is equal to 20 ml. To convert between cubic centimeters (cc) and milliliters (ml), the values are equivalent since they both measure volume in the metric system. Choice A (2) is incorrect as it does not account for the direct conversion between cc and ml. Choice C (2000) and choice D (20000) are incorrect as they represent conversions based on a misunderstanding of the relationship between cc and ml.

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