Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client following the insertion of a chest tube and drainage system. Which of the following should NOT be included in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours.
• B. Check for continuous bubbling in the suction chamber.
• C. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
• D. Obtain a chest x-ray

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stripping the drainage tubing is an outdated practice and can cause complications. Encouraging the client to cough helps with lung expansion, checking for continuous bubbling ensures proper functioning of the chest tube system, and obtaining a chest x-ray helps to assess the position of the chest tube and re-expansion of the lung. Therefore, stripping the drainage tubing every 4 hours should not be included in the plan of care.

2. When caring for a client on pressure support ventilation (PSV), which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of PSV?

• A. It keeps the alveoli open and prevents atelectasis.
• B. It allows preset pressure delivered during spontaneous ventilation.
• C. It guarantees minimal minute ventilator.
• D. It delivers a preset ventilatory rate and tidal volume to the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pressure support ventilation (PSV) is a mode that delivers a preset pressure when the client initiates a breath. This support helps the client to breathe spontaneously by reducing the work of breathing. The correct statement indicating an understanding of PSV is that it allows preset pressure to be delivered during spontaneous ventilation, as it assists the client's efforts without controlling the rate or volume of each breath.

3. A client with tuberculosis is receiving a new prescription for isoniazid (INH). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. You might notice yellowing of your skin.
• B. You might experience pain in your joints.
• C. You might notice tingling of your hands.
• D. You might experience loss of appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tingling of the hands is a common adverse effect of isoniazid (INH) due to its potential to cause peripheral neuropathy. This sensation can be an early sign of nerve damage, and thus, the client should be instructed to report it promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

4. Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium diet. These include:

• A. A ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread
• B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken
• C. A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives
• D. Chicken bouillon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken. Both mashed potatoes and broiled chicken are typically low in sodium content, making them suitable choices for a 500-mg low sodium diet. The other options, such as a ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, a tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives, and chicken bouillon, may contain higher amounts of sodium and are not typically recommended for a low sodium diet.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 8,000/mm³
• B. Platelets 150,000/mm³
• C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.

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