Nursing Elites

1. During discharge teaching, a client informs the nurse about a new prescription for prednisone for asthma. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding in teaching?

• A. I will decrease my fluid intake while taking this medication.
• B. I will expect to have black, tarry stools.
• C. I will take my medication with meals.
• D. I will monitor for weight loss while on this medication.

Correct answer: I will take my medication with meals.

Rationale: Taking prednisone with meals can help reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset and irritation. It is important for the client to understand how to take the medication correctly to maximize its effectiveness and minimize potential side effects. Monitoring for weight loss or changes in stools may be important but does not directly relate to the administration of the medication with meals.

2. Which of the following signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find when assessing an Asian patient for postoperative pain following abdominal surgery?

• A. Decreased blood pressure and heart rate and shallow respirations
• B. Quiet crying
• C. Immobility, diaphoresis, and avoidance of deep breathing or coughing
• D. Changing position every 2 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immobility, diaphoresis, and avoidance of deep breathing or coughing are common signs of pain.

3. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?

• A. Hyperthyroidism.
• B. Thrombophlebitis.
• C. Diverticulosis.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: Thrombophlebitis.

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives due to an increased risk of thromboembolism. Clients with a history of thrombophlebitis or thromboembolic disorders should avoid oral contraceptives to prevent further complications like deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.

4. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?

• A. Administer antibiotics
• B. Provide supplemental oxygen
• C. Administer antiviral medications
• D. Administer bronchodilators

Correct answer: Administer antibiotics

Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.

5. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

• A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
• B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
• C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

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