Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a parent of a toddler with congenital heart disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Offer small, frequent meals.
• B. Limit the toddler's physical activity.
• C. Provide a low-sodium diet.
• D. Monitor the toddler's intake and output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a parent of a toddler with congenital heart disease is to offer small, frequent meals. This recommendation helps reduce the cardiac workload on the child's heart and supports easier digestion and nutrient absorption, promoting the child's overall health. Limiting physical activity (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority in this case. While offering a low-sodium diet (choice C) can be beneficial, it is not the most critical instruction. Monitoring the toddler's intake and output (choice D) is important but not as essential as providing small, frequent meals to support the child's heart health.

2. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?

• A. Angina Pectoris
• B. Essential HTN
• C. Atrial Fibrillation
• D. Vasospastic Angina

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.

3. Which principle does not follow neuromaturational theory?

• A. The sequence and rate of motor development are consistent among infants
• B. Movement emerges from an interaction and cooperation of many systems
• C. Movement progresses from primitive reflexes to voluntary control
• D. Low-level skills are prerequisites for certain high-level skills

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neuromaturational theory emphasizes that motor development progresses in a predictable sequence and rate, starting from primitive reflexes to voluntary control. It also states that low-level skills are foundational for higher-level skills. However, the theory does not support the idea that movement solely emerges from an interaction and cooperation of many systems, as it focuses more on the hierarchical development of motor skills.

4. A parent of a child with oral candidiasis is being taught by a nurse. Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will boil the nipples and pacifiers for 20 minutes each day.
• B. I will stop the medication as soon as the spots disappear.
• C. I will apply an over-the-counter steroid cream to the spots.
• D. I will mix the medication in my child's bottle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Boiling the nipples and pacifiers for 20 minutes each day is an appropriate measure to prevent reinfection of oral candidiasis. This practice helps eliminate the Candida fungus from these items, reducing the risk of the child getting reinfected. It is crucial for the parent to follow this hygienic practice consistently to ensure the child's recovery and prevent the spread of the infection.

5. Parents are speaking with the urologist about their son's undescended testicle. Which statement by the child's father causes the nurse to determine he understands the information presented?

• A. An undescended testicle can reduce fertility.
• B. The testicle usually descends spontaneously during the first month of life.
• C. Surgical correction reduces the risk for testicular tumors.
• D. The optimal time to surgically correct the condition is at diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an undescended testicle can reduce fertility. Even after surgical correction (orchiopexy), fertility rates may be reduced, especially when one testis remains undescended. The statement in choice B is incorrect as the testicle should have descended into the scrotum by the time the infant is 4-6 months old. While choice C is true that surgical correction can reduce the risk of testicular tumors, the question focuses on the father's understanding of the information presented, which is better reflected in choice A. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal time for surgical correction of an undescended testicle is typically around 6-18 months of age, not necessarily at the time of diagnosis.

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