Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed a Beta Blocker for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is the correct answer. Beta Blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Beta Blockers do not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypernatremia as adverse effects.

2. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.

3. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

4. What is the antidote for Heparin?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Naloxone
• D. Toradol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin as it binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K is not the antidote for Heparin; it is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist for opioids, and Toradol is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. Therefore, the correct antidote for Heparin is Protamine sulfate.

5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Contact the provider if the heart rate is less than 60/min.
• B. Check the pulse rate for 30 seconds and multiply the result by 2.
• C. Increase the intake of sodium.
• D. Take with food if nausea occurs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for clients on Digoxin to monitor their heart rate. A heart rate less than 60/min can indicate bradycardia, a potential side effect of Digoxin. Therefore, the client should be instructed to contact the provider if their heart rate is less than 60/min to prevent complications and receive appropriate management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Checking the pulse rate for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not specific to Digoxin administration. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated as Digoxin can lead to sodium retention. Taking Digoxin with food if nausea occurs is not recommended as it may affect the drug's absorption.

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