Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

• A. Client who has dysphagia
• B. Client who has AIDS
• C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
• D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

2. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?

• A. Hyperthyroidism.
• B. Thrombophlebitis.
• C. Diverticulosis.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives due to an increased risk of thromboembolism. Clients with a history of thrombophlebitis or thromboembolic disorders should avoid oral contraceptives to prevent further complications like deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Deviation of the trachea
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Pleuritic pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

• A. Substernal retractions
• B. Hematuria
• C. Temperature 37.9°C (100.2°F)
• D. Sneezing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client following a thoracentesis. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider NOT recognize as risks for complications?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Localized bloody drainage on the dressing
• C. Fever
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a thoracentesis, some expected complications include dyspnea, fever, and hypotension. Localized bloody drainage on the dressing is a common and expected finding post-thoracentesis due to the procedure's nature of puncturing the chest wall. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not consider this finding as a risk for complications.

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