Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

• A. Client who has dysphagia
• B. Client who has AIDS
• C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
• D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

2. When providing discharge teaching for a group of clients, a nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian for which client?

• A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
• B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
• C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
• D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.' Gout is a condition that requires dietary modifications to manage symptoms. Anchovies are high in purines, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Therefore, a referral to a dietitian is essential to provide appropriate dietary guidance for a client with gout. Clients on warfarin may need to monitor their vitamin K intake, particularly from foods like spinach. Clients taking spironolactone should be cautious about potassium-rich foods. Clients with osteoporosis should be educated on the proper administration of calcium supplements but do not necessarily need a dietitian referral for this specific statement.

3. What do high-pitched gurgles heard over the right lower quadrant indicate?

• A. Increased bowel motility
• B. Decreased bowel motility
• C. Normal bowel sounds
• D. Abdominal cramping

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-pitched gurgles heard over the right lower quadrant indicate normal bowel sounds. Bowel sounds can vary in pitch, and high-pitched gurgles are considered normal and indicate the presence of active peristalsis in the intestines.

4. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...

• A. Three times a day orally
• B. Three times a day after meals
• C. Two times a day by mouth
• D. Two times a day before meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.

5. What term is used to describe the process of preparing the bed with a new set of linens?

• A. Bed bath
• B. Bed making
• C. Bed shampoo
• D. Bed lining

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bed making.' Bed making is the term used to describe the process of preparing the bed with a new set of linens. This includes changing the sheets, pillowcases, and adding any additional bedding to make the bed clean, fresh, and comfortable for the next use. 'Bed bath' is typically associated with washing a patient in bed, 'Bed shampoo' is not a common term related to bed preparation, and 'Bed lining' does not accurately describe the process of changing linens on a bed.

Similar Questions