Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

2. When a chest tube is accidentally removed from a client, which of the following actions should the nurse NOT take first?

• A. Obtain a chest x-ray
• B. Apply sterile gauze to the insertion site
• C. Place tape around the insertion site
• D. Assess respiratory status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a chest tube is accidentally removed, the priority action for the nurse is to immediately seal the insertion site with a gloved hand, a sterile occlusive dressing, or petroleum gauze to prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing a pneumothorax. Applying sterile gauze to the insertion site is not the correct initial action. The first step is to prevent respiratory compromise by ensuring the site is sealed. Therefore, the nurse should not apply sterile gauze to the insertion site first.

3. What is required for effective hand washing?

• A. Soap or detergent to promote emulsification
• B. Hot water to destroy bacteria
• C. A disinfectant to increase surface tension
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To effectively wash hands, soap or detergent is essential as they help emulsify fats and oils, allowing them to be rinsed away. Hot water alone cannot effectively destroy bacteria, and a disinfectant is not typically required for routine hand washing.

4. What is the best position for examining the rectum?

• A. Prone
• B. Sim's
• C. Knee-chest
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The knee-chest position is the most optimal position for examining the rectum. In this position, the patient kneels on the examination table with their chest resting on it, creating a straight line from the head to the lower back. This position allows for easier access and visualization of the rectal area, making it the preferred choice for rectal examinations. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down and is not ideal for rectal exams as it does not provide good access. Sim's position (choice B) is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh flexed, also not ideal for rectal exams. Lithotomy position (choice D) is lying on the back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, primarily used for gynecological exams and surgery, not for rectal examinations.

5. A nurse manager is reviewing documentation with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following notations by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''OOB with assistance for breakfast''
• B. ''Given 2 mg MSO4 IM for report of pain''
• C. ''Dressing changed qd''
• D. ''Administered 8 units of regular insulin subcutaneously''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates proper documentation by specifying the action taken ('Administered'), the dose ('8 units'), the medication ('regular insulin'), and the route of administration ('subcutaneously'). This notation ensures clarity and accuracy in recording the nursing intervention, aligning with best practices in documentation.

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