a nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for timolol how to insert eye drops the nurse should instruct the client to press on which
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. How should a client prevent systemic absorption of Timolol eye drops according to the nurse's instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to prevent systemic absorption of eye drops is to press on the nasolacrimal duct while instilling them. By doing so, the lacrimal punctum gets temporarily blocked, reducing drainage into the nasolacrimal duct and systemic circulation. This method helps enhance the localized effect of the medication and decreases the risk of systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not play a direct role in preventing systemic absorption of the eye drops.

2. A client has a new prescription for Raltegravir. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Raltegravir works by blocking the integrase enzyme, preventing the virus from integrating its genetic material into the host cell's DNA. By inhibiting this process, viral replication within the host cell is halted. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Raltegravir's mechanism of action specifically targets viral replication within the cell, not virus entry, exit, or attachment to the cell.

3. What is the action of Nitroglycerin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin acts by dilating the coronary arteries, leading to increased blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart. This helps in relieving angina symptoms by reducing the heart's workload and improving blood supply to the myocardium. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Nitroglycerin's primary action is not related to dilating bronchi, reducing blood glucose, or reducing nausea.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

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