ATI RN
ATI Nutrition 2024 NGN Exam
1. A nurse is initiating continuous enteral feedings for a client who has a new gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Measure the client’s gastric residual every 12 hr.
- B. Obtain the client’s electrolyte levels every 4 hr.
- C. Keep the client’s head elevated at 15* during feedings.
- D. Flush the client’s tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hr.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Flushing the client's tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours helps maintain tube patency and prevent blockages.
2. After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?
- A. Lethargy
- B. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Muscle irritability
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia refers to low levels of potassium in the blood, which can affect muscle function. The decreased potassium levels can lead to muscle weakness, cramping, and even paralysis. These symptoms can impact various muscle groups in the body, making muscle weakness the most significant symptom to monitor and address in patients with hypokalemia.
3. A client is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent respiratory complications?
- A. Instruct the client to avoid deep breathing exercises
- B. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer
- C. Assist the client with ambulation every 2 hours
- D. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer is crucial for preventing respiratory complications postoperatively, such as atelectasis. Instructing the client to avoid deep breathing exercises (choice A) is incorrect as deep breathing exercises help prevent respiratory complications. Assisting with ambulation every 2 hours (choice C) is important for preventing other postoperative complications but not specifically respiratory ones. Applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) (choice D) is beneficial for preventing deep vein thrombosis but not directly related to respiratory complications.
4. A client who has a positive stool culture for Clostridium difficile should be placed in which type of room for infection control purposes?
- A. Wear a face shield prior to entering the room.
- B. Place the client in a private room.
- C. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
- D. Use an alcohol-based hand rub following client care.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is the appropriate infection control measure for C. difficile to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a face shield may be necessary for procedures that generate splashes or sprays, it is not the primary precaution for C. difficile. Negative pressure rooms are typically used for airborne infections, not for C. difficile. Using an alcohol-based hand rub is important for hand hygiene but is not specific to managing C. difficile infection.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 8 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 12 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.
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