ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?
- A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
- B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
- C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
- D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.
2. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?
- A. It includes specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
- B. It is used by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis.
- C. It provides a classification system for mental disorders.
- D. It includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.
3. Which of the following statements should a healthcare provider recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select all that apply.
- A. They are employed when there is a threat to biological or psychological integrity.
- B. They are controlled by the id and deal with primal urges.
- C. They are used in an effort to increase anxiety.
- D. They are protective devices for the superego.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego, not the id or superego, in response to threats to biological or psychological integrity. They aim to relieve anxiety, not increase it. By redirecting focus, they help manage mild to moderate anxiety and are often self-deceptive in nature.
4. A client has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac) for the treatment of depression. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime to avoid daytime drowsiness.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- D. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking fluoxetine (Prozac) because alcohol can increase the risk of side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness. It is important to follow this instruction to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication in the treatment of depression. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine (Prozac) is usually taken in the morning to prevent insomnia. Choice C is not a crucial instruction for this medication. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.
5. When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?
- A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it challenging to differentiate between them
- B. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with cataplexy
- C. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished
- D. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome may experience temporary paralysis during sleep
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.
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