ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?
- A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
- B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
- C. When the client communicates significant distress
- D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.
2. Which term refers to nurses in the local/national health departments or public schools?
- A. Public health nursing
- B. Public health nurse
- C. Registered midwives
- D. Registered nurses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct term that refers to nurses in local/national health departments or public schools is 'Public health nurse.' Public health nursing (Choice A) is a broader term that encompasses the practice of nursing in the community to promote and protect the health of populations. Registered midwives (Choice C) specifically refers to a different role in healthcare related to childbirth and maternal care. Registered nurses (Choice D) are nurses who have completed specific education and training and are licensed to practice nursing.
3. What is a condition characterized by episodes of severe, acute shortness of breath, often occurring at night?
- A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
- B. Sleep apnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by sudden episodes of severe shortness of breath during sleep, often waking the individual. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but does not usually present with acute shortness of breath. Choice C, Orthopnea, refers to shortness of breath that occurs when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficult or labored breathing and does not specifically describe acute episodes at night.
4. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient with fluid overload?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for edema
- C. Monitor input and output
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in assessing fluid retention accurately in a patient with fluid overload. Changes in weight can indicate fluid accumulation or loss, providing valuable information for healthcare providers. Checking for edema (choice B) is important but may not always accurately reflect total body fluid status. Monitoring input and output (choice C) and blood pressure (choice D) are also essential aspects of patient assessment, but they may not directly reflect the extent of fluid overload as effectively as monitoring daily weight.
5. A client is being taught by a nurse about adding more fiber to the diet. Which of the following foods has the highest fiber content?
- A. 1 cup cooked sweet potato
- B. 1 slice rye toast
- C. 1 cup raw watermelon
- D. 1 oz cashews
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 oz of cashews. Cashews have a higher fiber content compared to sweet potato, rye toast, and watermelon. While sweet potatoes and rye toast contain fiber, cashews have a higher concentration, making them a better choice for increasing fiber intake. Watermelon, on the other hand, is low in fiber compared to the other options provided.
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