Nursing Elites

1. A client with COPD is developing a plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake to less than 2 L/day
• B. Provide the client with a low-protein diet
• C. Have the client use the early-morning hours for exercise and activity
• D. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In COPD, pursed-lip breathing helps improve breathing efficiency by maintaining positive pressure in the airways, preventing airway collapse, and promoting oxygenation. This technique assists in controlling respiratory rate, reducing dyspnea, and enhancing oxygen saturation levels. Restricting fluid intake is not typically a part of COPD management. Providing a low-protein diet is not a standard intervention for COPD. Early-morning hours are generally not recommended for exercise due to cooler temperatures and higher pollution levels, which can exacerbate COPD symptoms.

2. A client with a long history of smoking is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding is a common complication of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Decreased anteroposterior chest diameter
• B. Increased breath sounds
• C. Prolonged expiratory phase
• D. Increased chest expansion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In COPD, a prolonged expiratory phase is a typical finding caused by airway obstruction and air trapping. This results in difficulty expelling air from the lungs, leading to the characteristic prolonged exhalation in individuals with COPD.

3. A client underwent a total laryngectomy. Which of the following is the priority observation in the client's care?

• A. Patency of the intravenous line
• B. Level of pain
• C. Integrity of the dressing
• D. Need for suctioning

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a total laryngectomy, maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction due to secretions or blood clots. Monitoring the need for suctioning takes precedence to ensure the client's airway remains patent. While monitoring pain levels, IV line patency, and dressing integrity are important aspects of care, ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning is the priority in this scenario.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Stridor
• B. Copious oral secretions
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.

5. While caring for a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation, which intervention should the nurse NOT implement to prevent complications?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30°.
• B. Verify the prescribed ventilator settings daily.
• C. Administer pantoprazole as prescribed.
• D. Reposition the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily is not a standard practice and can increase the risk of complications, such as accidental extubation or damage to the airway. The endotracheal tube should remain in the initial correct position to ensure proper ventilation and prevent harm to the client. Elevating the head of the bed, verifying ventilator settings, and administering pantoprazole as prescribed are all appropriate interventions to prevent complications in a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.

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