ATI RN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Doxycycline
- C. Amoxicillin
- D. Penicillin G
Correct answer: D: Penicillin G
Rationale: Penicillin G is NOT commonly used to treat anthrax. Anthrax is typically treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and doxycycline due to penicillin's limited efficacy against anthrax bacteria. Amoxicillin is also not a preferred choice for anthrax treatment. Therefore, penicillin G would not be expected as a primary medication for anthrax treatment following bioterrorism exposure.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving nutrition education. Which nutrition information should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select ONE that does not apply)
- A. Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals.
- B. Rest before meals if you have dyspnea.
- C. Have about six small meals a day.
- D. Eat high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding drinking fluids just before and during meals helps prevent bloating in clients with COPD. Resting before meals if experiencing dyspnea can aid in improving breathing during meals. Having approximately six small meals a day can reduce bloating and help with easier digestion. However, consuming high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying is not advisable for clients with COPD, as fibrous foods can lead to gas production, abdominal bloating, and increased shortness of breath. Clients with COPD should focus on increasing calorie and protein intake to prevent malnourishment. Increasing carbohydrate intake should also be avoided, as it can raise carbon dioxide production and worsen dyspnea.
3. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?
- A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
- B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
- C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
- D. 1700 (5:00 PM)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.
4. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?
- A. Pain severity
- B. Wound drainage
- C. Tissue integrity
- D. Airway patency
Correct answer: Airway patency
Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.
5. A client is 4 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client's blood pressure has dropped from 120/80 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
- B. Check the surgical site for bleeding.
- C. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking the surgical site for bleeding is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the drop in blood pressure is due to hemorrhage, a potential postoperative complication. Identifying and addressing bleeding promptly is essential to prevent further complications and stabilize the client's condition.
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