ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam 2023
1. The nurse is unsuccessful in inserting a nasogastric tube for a newborn client. The nurse suspects the newborn has esophageal atresia/tracheoesophageal (EA/TE) fistula. Which nursing action is appropriate while waiting for the healthcare provider to further assess the neonate?
- A. Position the newborn in a semi-Fowler position.
- B. Allow the newborn to stay in the nursery for observation.
- C. Offer the newborn pacifier for comfort.
- D. Wrap the newborn in blankets and place in an incubator.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Positioning the newborn in a semi-Fowler position is appropriate as it helps prevent aspiration in suspected EA/TE fistula. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the newborn in a semi-Fowler position promotes the drainage of secretions and reduces the risk of complications while awaiting further assessment by the healthcare provider.
2. When the home health nurse visits the home of a 10-month-old child, she observes the environment for risks of injury to the child. Which observation will the nurse discuss with the mother?
- A. The mother leaves the filled mop bucket on the floor while in another room.
- B. The mother turns all pan handles to the back of the stove.
- C. The mother fills the bathtub before bringing the baby into the bathroom.
- D. When riding in a car, the child is in a car seat in the middle of the back seat.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because leaving a filled mop bucket on the floor poses a drowning hazard for a 10-month-old child. Water in the bucket can be a potential drowning risk if the child falls into it. Pan handles turned to the back of the stove prevent accidental spills or burns, which is a safety measure in the kitchen. Filling the bathtub before bringing the baby into the bathroom helps in preventing burns from hot water. Placing the child in a car seat in the middle of the back seat provides safety by minimizing the risk of injury during a car ride, but it is not the most immediate risk to address in the scenario provided.
3. Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?
- A. Level III
- B. Level I
- C. Level IV
- D. Level II
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level IV. Level IV nurseries are equipped to provide the highest level of care, including complex surgical interventions for serious congenital or acquired malformations. These nurseries have the necessary resources and expertise to manage critical cases effectively. Choice A: Level III nurseries provide advanced care for moderately ill newborns but may not have the capacity for on-site surgical repair of serious malformations. Choice B: Level I nurseries offer basic care for healthy newborns and those with minor issues, lacking the resources for surgical interventions. Choice D: Level II nurseries can manage moderately ill newborns but may not have the capability for complex surgical interventions like Level IV nurseries.
4. A healthcare professional is performing hearing screenings for children at a community health fair. Which of the following children should the professional refer to a provider for a more extensive hearing evaluation?
- A. A toddler who is 18 months old and has unintelligible speech
- B. An infant who is 3 months old and has an exaggerated startle response
- C. A preschooler who is 4 years old and prefers playing with others rather than alone
- D. An infant who is 8 months old and is not yet making babbling sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The healthcare professional should refer an infant who is not making babbling sounds by the age of 7 months to a provider for a more extensive evaluation of hearing. Babbling sounds are a developmental milestone that typically occurs by 7 months of age. Delayed or absent babbling can indicate potential hearing issues that warrant further assessment.
5. The nurse is teaching a patient with cancer about a new prescription for a fentanyl patch, 25mcg/hr. for chronic back pain. Which statement is the most appropriate to include in the teaching plan.
- A. You will need to change this patch every day, regardless of your pain level.
- B. This type of pain medication is not as likely to cause breathing problems.
- C. With the first patch, it will take about 24hrs before you feel the full effects.
- D. Use your heating pad for the back pain. It will also improve the patch�s effectiveness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Full analgesic effects can take up to 24 hours to develop with fentanyl patches. Most patches are changed every 72 hours. Has the same adverse effects as other opioids, including respiratory depression. Should avoid exposing the patch to external heat sources, because this may increase toxicity.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access