Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is unsuccessful in inserting a nasogastric tube for a newborn client. The nurse suspects the newborn has esophageal atresia/tracheoesophageal (EA/TE) fistula. Which nursing action is appropriate while waiting for the healthcare provider to further assess the neonate?

• A. Position the newborn in a semi-Fowler position.
• B. Allow the newborn to stay in the nursery for observation.
• C. Offer the newborn pacifier for comfort.
• D. Wrap the newborn in blankets and place in an incubator.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Positioning the newborn in a semi-Fowler position is appropriate as it helps prevent aspiration in suspected EA/TE fistula. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the newborn in a semi-Fowler position promotes the drainage of secretions and reduces the risk of complications while awaiting further assessment by the healthcare provider.

2. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient’s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

3. Which is the appropriate intervention when providing care to a child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome, who is edematous and on bed rest?

• A. Monitor blood pressure every 30 minutes.
• B. Reposition every 2 hours.
• C. Limit visitors.
• D. Encourage fluids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning every 2 hours is crucial in preventing skin breakdown in an edematous child on bed rest. This intervention helps redistribute pressure and maintain skin integrity, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. It is an essential part of care for patients with limited mobility to ensure their comfort and prevent complications related to immobility.

4. The healthcare provider is planning care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia pump. Which intervention may be required due to a potential adverse effect of this drug?

• A. Administering a cough suppressant
• B. Inserting a Foley catheter
• C. Administering an anti-diarrheal
• D. Monitoring urinary output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Morphine can lead to urinary retention and urinary hesitancy. If a patient shows signs of bladder distention or inability to void, the healthcare provider should be notified, and urinary catheterization may be necessary. Administering a cough suppressant or an anti-diarrheal is not typically required to address adverse effects of morphine. Liver function tests (LFTs) are not directly related to the potential adverse effects of morphine on the urinary system.

5. The patient taking warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis has an INR of 1.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administer IV push protamine sulfate
• B. Continue with the current prescription.
• C. Prepare to administer Vitamin K
• D. Call healthcare provider to increase the dose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR level of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to discuss the need for an increased dose to achieve the desired therapeutic range and prevent deep vein thrombosis effectively. Administering IV push protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not warfarin. Continuing with the current prescription without addressing the subtherapeutic INR level may not effectively prevent deep vein thrombosis. Administering Vitamin K is indicated for warfarin overdose leading to excessive anticoagulation, not for a subtherapeutic INR level that is below the target range.

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