ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client's serum Calcium is 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Calcitonin-salmon
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Zoledronic acid
- D. Ibandronate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range. In this case, the appropriate medication to anticipate administering is Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected reference range.
2. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?
- A. Intestinal ileus
- B. Neutropenia
- C. Delirium
- D. Hyperthermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.
3. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the healthcare provider?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, monitoring serum glucose levels is essential. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hyperglycemia. Therefore, regular monitoring of serum glucose helps in detecting and managing any potential hyperglycemic effects of the medication. Monitoring serum potassium, calcium, or sodium is not typically required when a client is on Prednisone unless there are specific risk factors or concerns related to these electrolytes.
4. A client is receiving chemotherapy and has a prescription for ondansetron IV for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Tremors
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Ondansetron can cause tremors as an adverse effect. Monitoring for tremors is essential as it can indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Hypotension (choice A) and bradycardia (choice B) are not commonly associated with ondansetron. Urinary retention (choice D) is also not a typical adverse effect of ondansetron, making choices A, B, and D incorrect in this scenario.
5. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.
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