ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.
2. A client has been prescribed a Beta Blocker for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is the correct answer. Beta Blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Beta Blockers do not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypernatremia as adverse effects.
3. A healthcare provider is completing a client's medical history. The client takes Simvastatin. The healthcare provider should identify which of the following disorders as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications?
- A. History of severe constipation
- B. History of hypertension
- C. Active hepatitis C
- D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ezetimibe is contraindicated in patients with active moderate-to-severe liver disorders, such as active hepatitis C, especially when they are already taking a statin like simvastatin. This combination can increase the risk of liver problems and is not recommended due to the potential for further liver damage. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindications for adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications.
4. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Flushing
- C. Gynecomastia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.
5. In the management of nausea due to gastroparesis in a client with Diabetes, which of the following medications may be prescribed?
- A. Lubiprostone
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Bisacodyl
- D. Loperamide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Metoclopramide, as a dopamine antagonist, is commonly prescribed to manage nausea and improve gastric motility in clients with diabetic gastroparesis. By enhancing gastric emptying, it can help alleviate symptoms like bloating and nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice A, Lubiprostone, is primarily used to treat chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation, not nausea due to gastroparesis. Choice C, Bisacodyl, is a stimulant laxative used for the treatment of constipation and bowel preparation before procedures, not for nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice D, Loperamide, is an antimotility agent used to manage diarrhea, not nausea or gastric motility issues seen in gastroparesis.
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