ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023
1. A parent of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Offer the infant feedings every 2 hours.
- B. Position the infant upright after feedings.
- C. Feed the infant thickened formula.
- D. Place the infant in a prone position after feedings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct posture after feedings is crucial for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux to reduce the risk of regurgitation. Placing the infant upright helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus, minimizing symptoms of reflux.
2. An immunology nurse is caring for a patient. While planning care, which principle will the nurse remember? The primary role of IgA1 is to prevent infections in the:
- A. Blood
- B. Kidneys
- C. Lungs
- D. Mucous membranes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood. IgA1 is mainly found in the blood and plays a crucial role in preventing infections by neutralizing pathogens. While IgA1 can be present in other body areas, its primary function is associated with preventing infections in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as IgA1 is not primarily associated with the kidneys, lungs, or mucous membranes.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.
4. Which of the following actions is a means of maintaining medical asepsis to reduce and prevent the spread of microorganisms?
- A. Sterilizing contaminated items
- B. Routinely cleaning the hospital environment
- C. Reapplying a sterile dressing
- D. Applying a sterile gown and gloves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sterilizing contaminated items. Maintaining medical asepsis involves ensuring that items are free of microorganisms to prevent infections. Sterilizing contaminated items is a crucial step in this process as it eliminates all microorganisms, including spores. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the process of reducing and preventing the spread of microorganisms. While routinely cleaning the hospital environment is important for cleanliness, it does not guarantee the elimination of all microorganisms. Reapplying a sterile dressing and applying a sterile gown and gloves are specific actions related to personal protective equipment and wound care, not the general maintenance of medical asepsis.
5. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?
- A. Pregnancy status
- B. Bone density
- C. Calcium levels
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.
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