Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following describes the condition in the body of clients experiencing hypovolemia?

• A. Increased urine retention
• B. Insufficient circulating blood volume
• C. Bounding peripheral pulses
• D. Crackles auscultated in the lungs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insufficient circulating blood volume. Hypovolemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the volume of blood plasma. This reduction in circulating blood volume can lead to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs, potentially resulting in shock if left untreated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased urine retention, bounding peripheral pulses, and crackles auscultated in the lungs are not typical manifestations of hypovolemia.

2. Which of the following is not included in the care plan of a client with moderate cognitive impairment involving dementia of the Alzheimer’s type?

• A. Daily structured schedule
• B. Positive reinforcement for performing activities of daily living
• C. Stimulating environment
• D. Use of validation techniques

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the care plan for a client with moderate cognitive impairment involving Alzheimer's type dementia, a stimulating environment is not included as it can potentially increase confusion. Therefore, it is important to provide a familiar, structured, and predictable environment to reduce stress and disorientation. Daily structured schedules help in maintaining routine and familiarity, positive reinforcement encourages engagement in activities, and validation techniques help in communicating effectively with the client by acknowledging their feelings and reality orientation.

3. A patient with a complex medical history is considering the use of oral contraceptives. The nurse should be aware that many antibiotics and antiseizure medications cause what effect when combined with oral contraceptives?

• A. Increased risk of pregnancy
• B. Increased blood pressure
• C. Increased risk of thromboembolism
• D. Increased gastric acid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of pregnancy. Certain antibiotics and anticonvulsants can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by inducing liver enzymes that metabolize the hormones more quickly. This interaction can lead to a decreased contraceptive effect, thereby increasing the risk of pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the effect of antibiotics and antiseizure medications on oral contraceptives.

4. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of bone fractures
• B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• D. Increased risk of prostate cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is essential during this therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of bone fractures, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?

• A. Muscle atrophy
• B. Facial weakness
• C. Ptosis and diplopia
• D. Increased muscle tone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (Choice B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (Choice D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.

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