a nurse in an emergency department is performing an admission assessment for a client who has severe aspirin toxicity which of the following findings
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. During an admission assessment for a client with severe Aspirin toxicity, what finding should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In severe Aspirin toxicity, respiratory depression can occur due to increasing respiratory acidosis. Aspirin toxicity leads to metabolic acidosis, stimulating the respiratory center in the brain to increase the respiratory rate initially. However, as the toxicity worsens, respiratory muscle fatigue and depression can occur, resulting in respiratory depression. This can lead to hypoxia, respiratory failure, and ultimately, respiratory arrest.

2. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to eat a diet high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Consuming foods rich in potassium can help maintain normal potassium levels in the body and counteract the potential side effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning does not specifically relate to its effectiveness or side effects, avoiding foods high in magnesium is not a primary concern when taking furosemide, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a general recommendation for individuals taking furosemide.

3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for warfarin, which statement should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include when teaching a client with a new prescription for warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, a potential side effect of warfarin therapy that needs prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while oral hygiene measures, dietary considerations, and skin care are important, they are not the priority when teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Monitoring for and reporting signs of bleeding is crucial due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

4. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.

5. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.

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