Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• C. Expect to have increased urination.
• D. Take the medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting Warfarin is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding; therefore, it is crucial for the client to watch for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stools, or unusual bleeding from gums or nose. If any of these signs occur, the client should promptly report them to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin K is related to other medications like Coumadin, increased urination is not a common side effect of Warfarin, and taking Warfarin with an antacid can potentially interfere with its absorption.

2. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.

3. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about managing the condition. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should eat small, frequent meals that are low in fiber.
• B. I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.
• C. I should take NSAIDs to relieve my pain.
• D. I will drink milk before bedtime to decrease acid production.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.' Limiting intake of caffeine-containing beverages is important for managing peptic ulcer disease as caffeine can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which may worsen the condition. It is advisable to choose decaffeinated beverages and avoid caffeinated drinks to help reduce the risk of aggravating the ulcer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests eating small, frequent meals low in fiber, which is not ideal for managing peptic ulcer disease. Choice C of taking NSAIDs is contraindicated as NSAIDs can worsen peptic ulcers. Choice D of drinking milk before bedtime to decrease acid production is a common misconception; while milk may temporarily neutralize stomach acid, it can stimulate more acid production later, making the condition worse.

4. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

5. What does it mean when a medication has a half-life?

• A. It only lasts for 30 minutes after the medication is given
• B. How long it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the bloodstream
• C. It is the peak of how effective the medicine is
• D. Drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a medication has a half-life, it refers to the time it takes for half of the dose to be eliminated from the bloodstream. This parameter is crucial in understanding the duration of action and dosing intervals for medications in clinical practice. Choice A is incorrect as the half-life is not about how long the medication lasts but about elimination from the body. Choice C is incorrect because the half-life is not about the peak effectiveness of the medicine. Choice D is incorrect as it does not accurately define the concept of half-life.

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