ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client with Bipolar disorder has a new prescription for Carbamazepine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy.
- B. Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet.
- C. You will need to have a complete blood count and carbamazepine levels drawn periodically.
- D. Notify your provider if you develop a rash.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet." Grapefruit juice affects carbamazepine metabolism and should be avoided. It can lead to increased levels of the medication, potentially causing toxicity. Monitoring carbamazepine blood levels and the complete blood count (CBC) is essential to ensure the medication's efficacy and safety. Although choice A is incorrect (This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy), carbamazepine is classified as a Pregnancy Category D drug, which means there is positive evidence of human fetal risk. Choice D (Notify your provider if you develop a rash) is also important because carbamazepine can cause serious adverse effects like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring and prompt reporting of any rash are crucial. Therefore, choices C and D are also relevant instructions for the client.
2. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Take the medication with breakfast.
- B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure.
- D. Limit sodium intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase intake of foods high in potassium.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion. The healthcare professional should instruct the client to increase the intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide therapy. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Choice C is unrelated to the side effects of Furosemide. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to the side effects of Furosemide.
3. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Increased TSH level
- B. Decreased ALT level
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.
4. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- B. I can expect my heart rate to increase while taking this medication.
- C. This medication will cause my urine to turn orange.
- D. I will stop taking this medication if I experience headaches.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.
5. A client has been taking Sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing Serotonin syndrome?
- A. Bruising
- B. Fever
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. Rash
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. Fever is a key symptom of serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur with the use of serotonergic medications like Sertraline. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by a combination of symptoms, including fever, agitation, rapid heartbeat, sweating, shivering, tremors, and in severe cases, it can lead to seizures, coma, and even death. Bruising (Choice A), abdominal pain (Choice C), and rash (Choice D) are not typically associated with serotonin syndrome. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring for fever as an early sign of serotonin syndrome in clients taking Sertraline.
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