a nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a female client who has bipolar disorder and a new prescription for carbamazepine which of the following inst
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. A client with Bipolar disorder has a new prescription for Carbamazepine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet." Grapefruit juice affects carbamazepine metabolism and should be avoided. It can lead to increased levels of the medication, potentially causing toxicity. Monitoring carbamazepine blood levels and the complete blood count (CBC) is essential to ensure the medication's efficacy and safety. Although choice A is incorrect (This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy), carbamazepine is classified as a Pregnancy Category D drug, which means there is positive evidence of human fetal risk. Choice D (Notify your provider if you develop a rash) is also important because carbamazepine can cause serious adverse effects like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring and prompt reporting of any rash are crucial. Therefore, choices C and D are also relevant instructions for the client.

2. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

3. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.

4. Which of the following is not a side effect of loop diuretics?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea is not commonly associated with loop diuretics. Loop diuretics are known to cause electrolyte imbalances such as potassium deficits, metabolic alkalosis, and hypotension due to excessive fluid loss. Nausea is not a typical side effect of loop diuretics.

5. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.

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