ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients receiving antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following clients should the professional plan to monitor for manifestations of antibiotic toxicity?
- A. An adolescent client with a sinus infection
- B. An older adult client with prostatitis
- C. A client who is postpartum with mastitis
- D. A middle-aged client with a urinary tract infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An older adult client with prostatitis who is receiving antibiotics should be monitored for toxicity due to age-related reductions in medication metabolism and excretion. Older adults are more susceptible to antibiotic toxicity, making them a high-risk group for adverse effects.
2. What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?
- A. Prevents the formation of blood clots
- B. Dissolves existing blood clots
- C. Dilates coronary arteries
- D. Treats rhythm disturbances
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Prevents the formation of blood clots." Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. This action reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it effective in preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots; it prevents their formation. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin's primary action is not to dilate coronary arteries. Choice D is incorrect as warfarin is not used to treat rhythm disturbances, but rather to prevent clot formation.
3. A client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth. The healthcare provider should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following?
- A. Bilirubin
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring calcium levels in the urine is crucial. Excessive calcium excretion can occur in the urine of clients taking Somatropin, increasing the risk of renal calculi. Therefore, monitoring calcium levels is essential to assess for potential kidney stone formation. Bilirubin, protein, and potassium are not specifically monitored in the urine of clients taking Somatropin for growth stimulation.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of vitamin
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- D. Take this medication every other day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone can lead to bone loss, so clients should increase their intake of vitamin D and calcium to help maintain bone health.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?
- A. Urinary retention
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Hypertension
- D. Irritating cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.
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