a nurse is caring for a group of clients who are receiving antimicrobial therapy which of the following clients should the nurse plan to monitor for m
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients receiving antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following clients should the professional plan to monitor for manifestations of antibiotic toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An older adult client with prostatitis who is receiving antibiotics should be monitored for toxicity due to age-related reductions in medication metabolism and excretion. Older adults are more susceptible to antibiotic toxicity, making them a high-risk group for adverse effects.

2. A patient has been taking hydrocodone, an opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and they have taken more than the prescribed dose. What should you administer as the antidote if they experience toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the specific antidote for opioid toxicity. It works by blocking the effects of opioids on the central nervous system, thereby reversing symptoms like respiratory depression and sedation. N-acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen overdose, while atropine is indicated for certain types of poisonings. Digoxin immune Fab is used for digoxin toxicity. Therefore, in the case of opioid toxicity due to hydrocodone overdose, naloxone is the appropriate antidote.

3. A client with a new prescription for Escitalopram for the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is being taught by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed tapered dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. This gradual reduction helps minimize potential withdrawal symptoms and ensures a safer discontinuation process. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking escitalopram on an empty stomach, following a low-sodium diet, and not crushing the medication are not directly related to the safe and effective use of the medication or its discontinuation process.

4. A client asks the nurse how Rituximab works, which the client is receiving to treat Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia. Which of the following should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds with specific antigens on B-lymphocytes, leading to the destruction of cancer cells. In the context of Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia, Rituximab targets and destroys cancerous B-lymphocytes, which helps in treating the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Rituximab does not block hormone receptors, increase immune response, or stop DNA replication during cell division. The primary mode of action of Rituximab is its binding with specific antigens on tumor cells, specifically B-lymphocytes, to elicit an immune response against cancerous cells.

5. A client is receiving long-term aspirin therapy. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemorrhagic stroke. Long-term aspirin therapy can lead to hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can predispose the individual to bleeding complications, including hemorrhagic stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin therapy is more likely to cause bleeding complications rather than thromboembolic events, iron deficiency anemia, or neutropenia.

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