Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients receiving antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following clients should the professional plan to monitor for manifestations of antibiotic toxicity?

• A. An adolescent client with a sinus infection
• B. An older adult client with prostatitis
• C. A client who is postpartum with mastitis
• D. A middle-aged client with a urinary tract infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An older adult client with prostatitis who is receiving antibiotics should be monitored for toxicity due to age-related reductions in medication metabolism and excretion. Older adults are more susceptible to antibiotic toxicity, making them a high-risk group for adverse effects.

2. A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication dosages? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Increased renal secretion
• B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
• C. Liver failure
• D. Peripheral vascular disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Liver failure impairs metabolism, leading to increased medication concentrations. When liver function is compromised, lower dosages are necessary to prevent adverse effects. Increased renal secretion is not a reason for lower medication dosages, as it primarily affects excretion rather than metabolism. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes would usually require higher dosages to achieve the desired effect. Peripheral vascular disease does not directly impact medication metabolism or dosage requirements.

3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and falls. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent these adverse effects by allowing the body to adjust to postural changes gradually, reducing the risk of significant blood pressure drops upon standing up quickly.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The healthcare provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

• A. Bursitis
• B. Sinusitis
• C. Depression
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to the potential to worsen the condition by further elevating intraocular pressure, leading to harm. Choosing option D, Glaucoma, as the correct answer is crucial for the client's safety and to prevent exacerbation of their eye condition. Options A, B, and C are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use and are unrelated to the pharmacological effects of this medication.

5. When starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect of trastuzumab. It is crucial for the client to report any breathing difficulties promptly to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not commonly associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not indicative of serious adverse effects that require immediate attention.

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