Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

2. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.

3. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?

• A. Varicella vaccine
• B. Rubella vaccine
• C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
• D. Measles vaccine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the inactivated influenza vaccine. During pregnancy, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend the inactivated influenza vaccine as safe for pregnant individuals. This vaccination is crucial to protect both the pregnant person and their developing baby from influenza-related complications. It is essential to avoid live vaccines, such as varicella (chickenpox), rubella, and measles vaccines during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of harm to the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because live vaccines are generally contraindicated during pregnancy.

4. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:

• A. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
• B. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure
• C. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs
• D. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.

5. A client has a new prescription for Metronidazole. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication with antacids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a client prescribed Metronidazole is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Drinking alcohol with Metronidazole can result in a disulfiram-like reaction, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and flushing. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to abstain from alcohol consumption during the course of treatment with Metronidazole.

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