Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Increasing dyspnea
• C. Decreasing respiratory rate
• D. Friction rub

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange. As a result, the client may experience increasing dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to the decreased lung capacity for oxygen exchange. Facial flushing, decreasing respiratory rate, and friction rub are not typically associated with atelectasis.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding does the nurse expect?

• A. Increased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight gain
• D. Productive cough with yellow sputum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with COPD commonly develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. A decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings in COPD. Instead, COPD patients often present with an increased respiratory rate, weight loss, and a chronic cough with sputum production.

3. A client is wearing a Venturi mask to receive oxygen, and the dinner tray has arrived. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation and, if normal, turn off the oxygen.
• B. Determine if the client can switch to a nasal cannula during the meal.
• C. Have the client lift the mask off the face when taking bites of food.
• D. Turn off the oxygen while the client eats the meal and then restart it.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should determine if the client can safely switch to a nasal cannula during meals. It is crucial to ensure that the provider has approved this change. Oxygen is considered a medication and should be delivered continuously. Turning off the oxygen or lifting the mask while eating can lead to a decrease in the FiO2 delivered, potentially compromising the client's oxygenation status. Therefore, the best course of action is to ascertain if transitioning to a nasal cannula is appropriate for the client during the meal.

4. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

5. A client has a chest tube in place connected to wall suction due to a right-sided pneumothorax. The client complains of chest burning. Which of the following actions should be taken?

• A. Increase the wall suction.
• B. Strip the chest tube.
• C. Clamp the chest tube.
• D. Reposition the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with a chest tube connected to wall suction complains of chest burning, it may indicate that the tube is irritating or compressing nearby tissues. Repositioning the client can help relieve this irritation by ensuring the tube is not kinked or pulling on the tissues. Increasing suction, stripping the tube, or clamping it are not appropriate actions and could potentially worsen the situation or cause harm.

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