Nursing Elites

1. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

• A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
• B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
• C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
• D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

2. When caring for a client with pneumonia, what intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection?

• A. Administer prescribed antibiotics on time.
• B. Encourage the client to use a tissue when coughing.
• C. Place the client in a private room.
• D. Perform hand hygiene before and after client contact.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective intervention to prevent the spread of infection when caring for a client with pneumonia is performing hand hygiene before and after client contact. This practice helps reduce the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, promoting infection control and maintaining a safe environment for both the client and healthcare provider.

3. A client developed fat embolism syndrome (FES) following a fracture. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased serum calcium level
• B. Decreased level of serum lipids
• C. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• D. Increased platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In fat embolism syndrome (FES), fat globules enter the bloodstream and can lead to various complications, including a decrease in serum calcium levels. This occurs due to the formation of fat emboli in the vessels, which can interfere with calcium metabolism. Therefore, a decreased serum calcium level is an expected laboratory finding in a client with fat embolism syndrome.

4. A client is caring for a postoperative client on the surgical unit. The client's blood pressure was 142/76 mm Hg 30 minutes ago and is now 88/50 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Call the Rapid Response Team.
• B. Document and continue to monitor.
• C. Notify the primary care provider.
• D. Repeat blood pressure measurement in 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the significant drop in blood pressure indicates a potential emergency situation. The correct action is to call the Rapid Response Team (RRT) to ensure prompt intervention and prevent further deterioration that could lead to respiratory or cardiac arrest. It is crucial to act swiftly in response to such a critical change in vital signs to provide the client with the necessary care and support.

5. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

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