ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?
- A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
- B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
- C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
- D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.
2. During an assessment, a client with a long history of smoking and suspected laryngeal cancer will most likely report which early manifestation?
- A. Dysphagia
- B. Hoarseness
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with laryngeal cancer, hoarseness is often one of the earliest manifestations due to vocal cord involvement. The irritation and inflammation caused by the tumor affect the vocal cords, leading to changes in voice quality. Dysphagia (choice A) typically occurs later as the tumor grows and interferes with swallowing. Dyspnea (choice C) and weight loss (choice D) may occur as the cancer progresses, but hoarseness is usually among the first signs to manifest in laryngeal cancer.
3. A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active, and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage the client to walk for 5 minutes each hour.
- B. Refer the client for smoking cessation classes.
- C. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing.
- D. Explain to the client that sometimes no cause for the disease is found.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including pulmonary embolism (PE). In a case where a client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this genetic disorder is crucial to determine if it is a contributing factor. Encouraging the client to walk or referring them to smoking cessation classes, while beneficial for overall health, are not directly relevant to the development of a PE in this specific case. While it is true that sometimes no cause for a disease is found, prematurely assuming this without appropriate investigations may lead to missed opportunities for preventive measures or treatments.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught by a nurse. What nutrition information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals.
- B. Rest before meals if experiencing dyspnea.
- C. Consume about six small meals a day.
- D. Consume high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: While some of the other options may be helpful, the most appropriate advice for a client with COPD is to consume high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying. Avoiding fluids just before and during meals can help prevent bloating, resting before meals can assist with dyspnea, and having several small meals a day can help reduce bloating. However, fibrous foods can lead to gas production, causing abdominal bloating and potentially worsening shortness of breath. Increasing calorie and protein intake is essential to prevent malnourishment. It is also important to avoid excessive carbohydrate intake, as it can increase carbon dioxide production and the risk of acidosis in COPD patients.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of this disease?
- A. Asymmetrical joint involvement
- B. Heberden's nodes
- C. Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes
- D. Pain that worsens with activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes is a hallmark symptom of rheumatoid arthritis. This prolonged morning stiffness is typically a distinguishing feature of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other types of arthritis, making it the most characteristic assessment finding for this disease.
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