Nursing Elites

1. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

• A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
• B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
• C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
• D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

2. A client had an evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Observe for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the evacuation site.
• B. Assess for an increase in temperature.
• C. Check the oximeter.
• D. Monitor for manifestations of increased intracranial pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client who had an evacuation of a subdural hematoma, the nurse's priority is to check the oximeter. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to ensure adequate tissue oxygenation, especially after such a procedure. This assessment helps in early detection of hypoxemia, which can be detrimental to the client's recovery. While observing for CSF leaks, assessing for temperature changes, and monitoring for signs of increased intracranial pressure are important, checking the oximeter takes precedence to address immediate oxygenation needs.

3. A client with asthma has developed viral pharyngitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Petechiae on the chest and abdomen
• B. WBC 16,000/mm3
• C. Negative throat culture
• D. Severe hyperemia of pharyngeal mucosa

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Viral pharyngitis is typically caused by a virus, not bacteria, so a negative throat culture is an expected finding. The presence of petechiae on the chest and abdomen (Choice A) is not a common manifestation of viral pharyngitis. Elevated WBC count (Choice B) is more indicative of a bacterial infection rather than a viral one. Severe hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa (Choice D) is a possible finding in pharyngitis but is not specific to viral pharyngitis.

4. A nurse cares for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who has been prescribed continuous oxygen therapy at home. Which statement indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?

• A. I plan to wear my oxygen when I exercise & feel short of breath.
• B. I will use my portable oxygen when grilling burgers in the backyard.
• C. I plan to use cotton balls to cushion the oxygen tubing on my ears.
• D. I will only smoke while I am wearing my oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cotton balls can decrease pressure ulcers from the oxygen tubing. Continuous oxygen orders mean the client should wear the oxygen at all times. Oxygen fuels a fire. Wearing oxygen while grilling & smoking increases the risk for fire.

5. A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Doxycycline
• C. Amoxicillin
• D. Penicillin G

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillin G is NOT commonly used to treat anthrax. Anthrax is typically treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and doxycycline due to penicillin's limited efficacy against anthrax bacteria. Amoxicillin is also not a preferred choice for anthrax treatment. Therefore, penicillin G would not be expected as a primary medication for anthrax treatment following bioterrorism exposure.

Similar Questions