Nursing Elites

1. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

• A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
• B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
• C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
• D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

2. A client who is intubated and has an intra-aortic balloon pump is restless and agitated. What action should the nurse perform first for comfort?

• A. Allow family members to remain at the bedside.
• B. Ask the family if the client would like a fan in the room.
• C. Keep the television tuned to the client's favorite channel.
• D. Speak loudly to the client in case of hearing problems.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allowing the family to remain at the bedside can help calm the client with familiar voices and presence, potentially reducing restlessness and agitation. Introducing a fan may not be the priority as it can spread germs through air movement. Keeping the television on all the time may not promote rest and recovery. Speaking loudly is not advisable as it may further agitate the client. Therefore, the initial action of allowing family members to stay is most likely to provide comfort and reassurance to the client.

3. A client develops a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Give morphine IV.
• B. Administer oxygen therapy.
• C. Start an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's.
• D. Initiate cardiac monitoring.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels and decrease the workload on the heart. It is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation before other interventions are initiated. Morphine IV, starting an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's, and initiating cardiac monitoring are important interventions but come after ensuring adequate oxygenation.

4. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

5. A client with a long history of smoking is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding is a common complication of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Decreased anteroposterior chest diameter
• B. Increased breath sounds
• C. Prolonged expiratory phase
• D. Increased chest expansion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In COPD, a prolonged expiratory phase is a typical finding caused by airway obstruction and air trapping. This results in difficulty expelling air from the lungs, leading to the characteristic prolonged exhalation in individuals with COPD.

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