Nursing Elites

1. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

• A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
• B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
• C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
• D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

2. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia in a client with an endotracheal tube receiving mechanical ventilation?

• A. Position the head of the client's bed flat
• B. Turn the client every 4 hours
• C. Brush the client's teeth with a suction toothbrush every 12 hours
• D. Provide humidity by maintaining moisture within the ventilator tubing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is a common complication in clients receiving mechanical ventilation. Oral hygiene is crucial in reducing the risk of VAP. Brushing the client's teeth with a suction toothbrush every 12 hours helps prevent bacterial colonization in the oral cavity, which can be aspirated into the lungs. Positioning the head of the bed flat can increase the risk of aspiration. Turning the client every 4 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but not directly related to reducing VAP. Providing humidity in the ventilator tubing helps maintain airway moisture but does not directly address the risk of VAP.

3. A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Fluconazole
• C. Tobramycin
• D. Vancomycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of anthrax exposure, the recommended antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is effective against the anthrax bacterium, Bacillus anthracis. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication, Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used for bacterial infections, and Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic primarily used for Gram-positive bacterial infections. Therefore, the correct choice is Ciprofloxacin.

4. A client is planning to perform nasotracheal suction for a client who has COPD and an artificial airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Perform suctioning for up to four passes.
• B. Apply suction to the catheter when advancing it into the trachea.
• C. Preoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen for up to 3 min.
• D. Limit each suction pass to 25 seconds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

5. A client had a stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings?

• A. Poor impulse control
• B. Inability to discriminate words and letters
• C. Deficits in the right visual field
• D. Motor retardation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stroke affecting the right cerebral hemisphere can lead to poor impulse control due to the involvement of this area in regulating behavior and inhibiting impulses. Deficits in the right visual field are associated with stroke affecting the left cerebral hemisphere. Inability to discriminate words and letters may be seen in left cerebral hemisphere strokes. Motor retardation may be observed with strokes affecting motor areas in either hemisphere but is not the most specific finding related to a right cerebral hemisphere stroke.

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