Nursing Elites

1. A client has a tracheostomy that is 3 days old. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client's face is puffy, and the eyelids are swollen. What action by the nurse takes priority?

• A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
• B. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
• C. Oxygenate the client with a bag-valve-mask.
• D. Palpate the skin of the upper chest.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client may have subcutaneous emphysema, where air leaks into the tissues surrounding the tracheostomy. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and other indicators of oxygenation to ensure adequate oxygen supply. If the client is stable, the nurse can then proceed to palpate the skin of the upper chest to check for subcutaneous emphysema. If the client is unstable, the nurse should promptly notify the Rapid Response Team. Using a bag-valve-mask device may be necessary for oxygenating the client, but assessing oxygen saturation comes first to guide further interventions.

2. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

3. A college health nurse interprets the peak expiratory flow rate for a student who has asthma and finds that the student is in the yellow zone of his asthma action plan. The nurse should not base her actions on which of the following information?

• A. The student should use his quick-relief inhaler.
• B. The student's asthma is not well controlled.
• C. The student's peak flow is 50% to 80% of his best peak flow.
• D. The student needs to go to the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In an asthma action plan, the yellow zone indicates caution and signals a need to monitor symptoms closely. When a student is in the yellow zone, the appropriate action is to follow the prescribed steps, which typically include using a quick-relief inhaler and closely monitoring peak flow. Going to the hospital is usually reserved for severe asthma exacerbations in the red zone. Therefore, the information that the student needs to go to the hospital is not typically appropriate when the student is in the yellow zone.

4. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving nutrition education. Which nutrition information should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals.
• B. Rest before meals if you have dyspnea.
• C. Have about six small meals a day.
• D. Eat high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding drinking fluids just before and during meals helps prevent bloating in clients with COPD. Resting before meals if experiencing dyspnea can aid in improving breathing during meals. Having approximately six small meals a day can reduce bloating and help with easier digestion. However, consuming high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying is not advisable for clients with COPD, as fibrous foods can lead to gas production, abdominal bloating, and increased shortness of breath. Clients with COPD should focus on increasing calorie and protein intake to prevent malnourishment. Increasing carbohydrate intake should also be avoided, as it can raise carbon dioxide production and worsen dyspnea.

Similar Questions