ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a tracheostomy that is 3 days old. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client's face is puffy, and the eyelids are swollen. What action by the nurse takes priority?
- A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
- B. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
- C. Oxygenate the client with a bag-valve-mask.
- D. Palpate the skin of the upper chest.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client may have subcutaneous emphysema, where air leaks into the tissues surrounding the tracheostomy. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and other indicators of oxygenation to ensure adequate oxygen supply. If the client is stable, the nurse can then proceed to palpate the skin of the upper chest to check for subcutaneous emphysema. If the client is unstable, the nurse should promptly notify the Rapid Response Team. Using a bag-valve-mask device may be necessary for oxygenating the client, but assessing oxygen saturation comes first to guide further interventions.
2. While caring for a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation, which intervention should the nurse NOT implement to prevent complications?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30�.
- B. Verify the prescribed ventilator settings daily.
- C. Administer pantoprazole as prescribed.
- D. Reposition the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Repositioning the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily is not a standard practice and can increase the risk of complications, such as accidental extubation or damage to the airway. The endotracheal tube should remain in the initial correct position to ensure proper ventilation and prevent harm to the client. Elevating the head of the bed, verifying ventilator settings, and administering pantoprazole as prescribed are all appropriate interventions to prevent complications in a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.
3. A healthcare provider collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the healthcare provider include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select ONE that does not apply)
- A. I ensured the client did not use bronchodilator medication within the specified timeframe.
- B. The client is prepared to undergo the examination in radiology.
- C. Physical therapy has approved the client for treadmill exercise.
- D. I instructed the client not to smoke for the required duration before the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For accurate pulmonary function tests (PFTs), it is essential to communicate that the client did not use bronchodilators within the specified timeframe, did not smoke for the required duration before the test, and can comply with different breathing maneuvers. The use of a treadmill is not part of the PFT procedure and is unrelated to the testing process. Therefore, communicating about the client's ability to run on a treadmill is not relevant to the pulmonary function tests being conducted by the respiratory therapist.
4. How can a nurse manager best improve hand-off communication among the staff? (SATA)
- A. Attending hand-off rounds to coach and mentor.
- B. Conducting audits of staff using a new template.
- C. Creating a template of topics to include in the report.
- D. Utilizing the SHARE model as a tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The SHARE model is a valuable tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication. By utilizing this model, the nurse manager can ensure consistency and clarity in hand-off communication among the staff. While attending hand-off rounds to coach and mentor, conducting audits using a new template, and creating a template of topics to include in the report can all be beneficial actions, the most effective approach to achieve the goal of improving hand-off communication is by implementing a standardized tool like the SHARE model.
5. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. Weight gain of 1 kg since the last dialysis session
- B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is critically high and can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a common complication in clients with ESRD due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. High potassium levels can result in serious cardiac consequences such as arrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and death. Prompt action is necessary to prevent these severe complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access