Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with major depressive disorder, what is the most appropriate short-term goal for the client?

• A. The client will report a decrease in depressive symptoms.
• B. The client will establish a sleep routine.
• C. The client will improve social interactions.
• D. The client will set realistic goals for the future.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate short-term goal for a client with major depressive disorder is for them to report a decrease in depressive symptoms. This goal is specific, measurable, and achievable, focusing on the primary symptoms of the disorder. By monitoring and assessing the client's self-reported improvement in depressive symptoms, the healthcare team can track progress and adjust interventions accordingly.

2. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing borderline personality disorder?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• C. Psychoanalysis
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing borderline personality disorder. DBT is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that focuses on providing skills to cope with intense emotions, improve relationships, and regulate behavior. It has been extensively studied and shown to be effective in reducing self-harm, suicidal behaviors, and improving overall functioning in individuals with borderline personality disorder. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Choice B) is a common and effective treatment for many mental health conditions but is not as specifically tailored to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder as DBT. Psychoanalysis (Choice C) is a more intensive and long-term therapy that focuses on exploring unconscious patterns and early life experiences, which may not be as practical or effective for the impulsive and emotional dysregulation seen in borderline personality disorder. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support but lacks the structured skills training and strategies that are essential in managing borderline personality disorder.

3. A healthcare professional is providing education to the family of a client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in daily activities.
• B. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
• C. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine.
• D. Encourage the client to spend time alone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to participate in daily activities is crucial in managing schizophrenia. Engaging in activities can enhance the quality of life and reduce symptoms by providing structure, routine, and social interaction, which are beneficial for individuals with schizophrenia. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate instructions for managing schizophrenia. While expressing feelings can be helpful, daily activities have a more significant impact on managing the condition. Avoiding caffeine and spending time alone are not directly related to managing schizophrenia and may not be the most beneficial strategies.

4. A client has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid driving until you know how the medication affects you.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam (Ativan) can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so the client should avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. This instruction is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and preventing any potential accidents or harm. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it contradicts the usual recommendation of taking lorazepam with or without food. Choice D is incorrect and dangerous advice as doubling the dose of lorazepam can lead to overdose and serious complications.

5. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

Similar Questions