Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with major depressive disorder, what is the most appropriate short-term goal for the client?

• A. The client will report a decrease in depressive symptoms.
• B. The client will establish a sleep routine.
• C. The client will improve social interactions.
• D. The client will set realistic goals for the future.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate short-term goal for a client with major depressive disorder is for them to report a decrease in depressive symptoms. This goal is specific, measurable, and achievable, focusing on the primary symptoms of the disorder. By monitoring and assessing the client's self-reported improvement in depressive symptoms, the healthcare team can track progress and adjust interventions accordingly.

2. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude?

• A. Continue taking medications as prescribed
• B. Avoid all social interactions
• C. Report any side effects of medications to the healthcare provider
• D. Develop a daily routine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should exclude the instruction to 'Avoid all social interactions' when providing discharge teaching to a client with schizophrenia. It's important for individuals with schizophrenia to continue taking medications as prescribed, report any medication side effects to the healthcare provider, and develop a daily routine to promote stability. Social interactions, albeit with appropriate boundaries, can be beneficial for the client's well-being and integration into the community.

3. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) and is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
• C. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. I should avoid eating aged cheeses and processed meats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to be effective, so it is important for the client to be informed about this timeframe. This medication does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, but it can be taken with or without food. Choice A is a good practice for many medications but not specifically related to sertraline (Zoloft). Choice D is not directly related to sertraline (Zoloft) but pertains to dietary restrictions when taking MAOIs due to potential interactions with tyramine.

4. When educating the family of a client diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to avoid stressful situations.
• B. Encourage the client to participate in daily activities.
• C. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
• D. Encourage the client to develop a daily routine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of dissociative identity disorder, it is beneficial for the client to establish a daily routine. This structure can enhance symptom management and provide a sense of stability, which is particularly important for individuals with this condition. Encouraging the client to avoid stressful situations (Choice A) may not always be possible and does not address the need for structure. While encouraging the client to participate in daily activities (Choice B) is important, having a routine is more crucial for managing dissociative identity disorder. Expressing feelings (Choice C) is valuable but establishing a routine takes precedence in this situation.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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