Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with major depressive disorder, what is the most appropriate short-term goal for the client?

• A. The client will report a decrease in depressive symptoms.
• B. The client will establish a sleep routine.
• C. The client will improve social interactions.
• D. The client will set realistic goals for the future.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate short-term goal for a client with major depressive disorder is for them to report a decrease in depressive symptoms. This goal is specific, measurable, and achievable, focusing on the primary symptoms of the disorder. By monitoring and assessing the client's self-reported improvement in depressive symptoms, the healthcare team can track progress and adjust interventions accordingly.

2. Which of the following would be the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing severe anxiety?

• A. Encourage the patient to talk about their feelings.
• B. Use a firm, authoritative approach.
• C. Stay with the patient and provide a quiet environment.
• D. Suggest the patient watch TV to distract themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a severe anxiety episode, it's crucial to stay with the patient and create a quiet environment. This approach helps reduce anxiety by providing a sense of safety and support. Encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings may not be effective during an acute episode of severe anxiety. Using a firm, authoritative approach can escalate the situation and worsen the anxiety. Suggesting distractions like watching TV may not address the root cause of the anxiety or provide the necessary support.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is performing a ritualistic handwashing routine. What is the nurse's best initial response?

• A. Interrupt the ritual to help the patient gain control.
• B. Allow the ritual but set limits on the duration.
• C. Ignore the behavior to avoid reinforcing it.
• D. Encourage the patient to stop the ritual and discuss their feelings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD engaging in ritualistic behaviors like handwashing, the nurse's best initial response is to allow the ritual but set limits on the duration. This approach helps in managing the behavior while gradually working towards reducing its frequency. Interrupting the ritual abruptly may cause distress to the patient, ignoring the behavior may reinforce it, and encouraging the patient to stop the ritual without setting limits may not be as effective in the initial stage of intervention.

5. Which intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia?

• A. Screening a group of males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms.
• B. Forming a support group for females aged 25 to 35 with substance use issues.
• C. Providing coping skills information to a group aged 45 to 55.
• D. Educating parents of developmentally delayed 5- to 6-year-olds on early intervention importance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Screening males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms of schizophrenia is a well-chosen intervention as this age group is at a higher risk for developing the condition. Early identification can lead to timely treatment and better outcomes, making this intervention particularly effective in addressing the population at risk for schizophrenia.

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